A K-ary relation is a class of K-tuples, for some positive integer K. For example, a binary relation is a class of ordered pairs.
A K-ary relation is also a subset of the cartesian product of the sets $X_{1}$, $X_{2}$, $X_{3}$, ... , $X_{K-1}$ and $X_{K}$.
This must mean that a class of K-tuples is equivalent to a subset of the cartesian product of $X_{1}$, $X_{2}$, $X_{3}$, ... , $X_{K-1}$ and $X_{K}$. For the purpose of presenting both definitions to my students, I would like to prove this, and I cannot do so.
Proving that if you have a subset of the cartesian product of $X_{1}$, $X_{2}$, $X_{3}$, ... , $X_{K-1}$ and $X_{K}$, then you must have a class of K-tuples seems fine, but I cannot prove the converse. That is, if you have a class of K-tuples, then you must have a subset of the cartesian product of $X_{1}$, $X_{2}$, $X_{3}$, ... , $X_{K-1}$ and $X_{K}$.
I know that a set of K-tuples (that all possess the same property) is equivalent to a subset of the cartesian product of $X_{1}$, $X_{2}$, $X_{3}$, ... , $X_{K-1}$ and $X_{K}$, so it seems like I just have to prove that a class of K-tuples is a set of those same K-tuples.
To prove this, am I going to have to show that a class of K-tuples satisfies the axioms of ZFC?
$X^{k-1}$to make them look like $X^{k-1}$. – kaba Mar 07 '25 at 00:07I think you're correct that a k-ary relation is a subset of $X^{K}$ for homogeneous relations, but I'm talking about in the general case when $X_{1}$, $X_{2}$, and so on are different.
– Mar 07 '25 at 02:00