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Suppose multivector $V \in \mathbb{G}^{p,q}$ is a versor, i.e. suppose there exist finitely many invertible vectors $\mathbf{v}_1, \dots, \mathbf{v}_k$ such that $V = \mathbf{v}_1 \cdots \mathbf{v}_k$. Let $\hat{V}$ and $\tilde{V}$ denote the grade involute and reverse of $V$. It is then easy to show that the following must be true:

  1. $V$ has a multiplicative inverse $V^{-1}$.
  2. $\hat{V}V^{-1}$ is a scalar.
  3. $\hat{V}V^{-1} = V^{-1}\hat{V}$.
  4. $\hat{V}\mathbf{u}\tilde{V}$ is a 1-vector whenever $\mathbf{u}$ is a 1-vector.

According to p. 533 of Geometric Algebra for Computer Science, Revised Edition (Dorst, Fontijne, & Mann), the converse is true: If $V$ satisfies the four conditions listed above, then $V$ must be a versor.

To me, the converse is unproven. Can anyone provide a proof? Or provide a counterexample?

Remark:
Conditions (2) and (3) can be replaced by
$\qquad\hat{V}V^{-1} = (-1)^k = V^{-1}\hat{V}$ for some integer $k$.
And condition (4) can be replaced by
$\qquad\hat{V}\mathbf{u}V^{-1}$ is a 1-vector whenever $\mathbf{u}$ is a 1-vector.

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    Related: https://math.stackexchange.com/q/4672980/472818 – mr_e_man Feb 28 '25 at 00:17
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    Note, (1,2) imply (3). (Multiply (2) by $V$ on the right and by $V^{-1}$ on the left.) -- But why in (4) can $\tilde V$ be replaced with $V^{-1}$? – mr_e_man Feb 28 '25 at 02:46
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    It is not valid! Consider $1+I$ in the spacetime algebra $\mathbb G^{3,1}$. This example is from the linked post, "(3,4,7) don't imply (1) or (2)". – mr_e_man Feb 28 '25 at 03:43

2 Answers2

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Very related is this post by mr_e_man.

Call the alternative conditions $(2')$ and $(4')$.

Condition $(2)$ merely says that $\hat V = \alpha V$ for some scalar $\alpha$, whence $$ V + \hat V = (1+\alpha)V,\quad V - \hat V = (1-\alpha)V $$ so if $\alpha\ne\pm1$ then $V$ is both even and odd, and hence 0, which contradicts (1). Thus $\alpha = \pm1$, and $(2)$ is just a silly way of saying that $V$ has homogeneous parity. (3) Then easily follows and is entirely unecessary.

(1) and (4') together make all other conditions unnecessary.

Our revised lists of conditions are $$\begin{cases} (1) & V\text{ is invertible}, \\ (2'')& V\text{ is even or odd}, \\ (4) & Vu\tilde V\text{ is a vector when $u$ is}. \end{cases} \quad\text{or}\quad \begin{cases} (1) & V\text{ is invertible}, \\ (4')& \hat VuV^{-1}\text{ is a vector when $u$ is}. \end{cases} $$ It suffices to show (a) that the first set of conditions implies that $V\tilde V$ is a scalar; and (b) that the second set implies that $V$ is a versor.


However, (a) is false per the counterexample given by mr_e_man in the comments. Consider $1 + I \in \mathbb G^{3,1}$, $I = e_1e_2e_3e_4$. Clearly this is even and has inverse $\frac12(1 - I)$. Noting that $(1 + I)^\sim = 1 + I$, for any vector $u$ we have $$ (1 + I)u(1 + I) = u(1 - I)(1 + I) = u(1 - I^2) = 2u. $$ But $$ (1 + I)(1 + I) = 1 + 2I + I^2 = 2I $$ is not a scalar.

Actually, we can use this idea to generate infinitely many counterexamples in many different signatures. All we need is $p+q = 2k$, $I^2 = -1$, and $\tilde I = I$. The last two conditions together imply that $q$ is odd; together with the first this implies that $p$ is odd; and considering the third again we get that $p + q$ must be a multiple of 4.

Thus, all the following and more yield counterexamples: $$ (3,1)\quad(1,3)\quad(1,7)\quad(7,1)\quad(3,5)\quad(5,3) $$$$ (9,3)\quad(3,9)\quad(7,5)\quad(5,7)\quad(11,1)\quad(1,11) $$


In contrast, claim (b) is a standard result:

The group $$ \Gamma = \{V \;:\; V^{-1}\text{ exists and }\hat VuV^{-1}\text{ is a vector for all vectors }u\} $$ is called the Lipschitz group. For any vector $u$ note that $$ (\hat VuV^{-1})^2 = \hat VuV^{-1}\hat VuV^{-1} = (V\hat u\hat V^{-1})^\wedge\hat VuV^{-1} = Vu(\hat V)^{-1}\hat VuV^{-1} = u^2 $$ so that $u \mapsto \hat VuV^{-1}$ is an isometry; thus we have a group homomorphism $\psi : \Gamma \to \mathrm O(p,q)$ given by $\psi_V(u) = \hat VuV^{-1}$. Now note that $$ \hat VuV^{-1} = u \iff \hat V = uVu^{-1}. $$ If this condition holds for all $u$ then we see that $V$ is a scalar (by, say, expanding $V$ in an orthogonal basis and choosing $u$ wisely). In other words, $\ker(\psi) = \mathbb R^\times$. Finally, we know that if $V$ is a vector then $\psi_V$ is a reflection; by the Cartan–Dieudonné theorem and the kernel result above we have that every element of $\Gamma$ is (proportional to) a product of at most $p+q$ vectors.

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On p. 533 of Geometric Algebra for Computer Science (Dorst, Fontijne, & Mann, 2007) an erroneous test was given for whether a multivector was a versor. (A counterexample exists.)

I have developed a proof that necessary and sufficient conditions for a multivector $V \in {\mathbb G}^{p,q}$ to be a versor are the following, where ${\tilde V}$ and ${\hat V}$ respectively denote $V$'s reverse and grade involute.)

  1. $V{\tilde V}$ is a nonzero scalar.
  2. ${\hat V}{\mathbf x}{\tilde V}$ is a 1-vector whenever ${\mathbf x}$ is a 1-vector.

Remark: Application of the test avoids the need to first find the inverse $V^{-1}$, which can involve considerable work. Instead the conditions have been written in terms of $V$ and its easily calculable reverse ${\tilde V}$ and grade involute ${\hat V}$. Thanks to mr_e_man and Nicholas Todoroff for their remarks pointing me in the correct direction.

Condition 1 guarantees the existence of $V^{-1}$, an existence used in the proof although not in the theorem statement. Condition 2 implies that ${\mathsf O}[{\mathbf x}] := {\hat V}{\mathbf x}V^{-1}$ is an orthogonal transformation, i.e. a linear transformation ${\mathsf O}:{\mathbb R}^{p,q} \rightarrow {\mathbb R}^{p,q}$ which preserves the scalar product.

Invoke the Cartan-Dieudonne theorem and write ${\mathsf O}$ as the composite of reflections through origin-containing hyperplanes with nonnull normal vectors ${\mathbf w}_1, \dots, {\mathbf w}_k$. $${\hat V}{\mathbf x}V^{-1} = {\mathsf O}[{\mathbf x}] = {\hat{\mathbf w}}_k (\cdots ({\hat{\mathbf w}}_1 {\mathbf x}{\mathbf{w}_1}^{-1}) \cdots ) {\mathbf{w}_k}^{-1} = {\hat W} {\mathbf x} W^{-1}$$ where $W = {\mathbf w}_k \cdots {\mathbf w}_1$ is a versor. Rewrite as $${\hat U}{\mathbf x} = {\mathbf x}{\hat U},$$ where $U := W^{-1}V$. Rewrite still again, using ${\mathbf x}\rfloor U = {\frac 1 2}({\mathbf x}U - {\hat U}{\mathbf x})$, as $${\mathbf x}\rfloor U=0$$ for all 1-vectors ${\mathbf x}$. Now the only nonzero multivectors $U$ with vanishing left contractions for all 1-vectors are the nonzero scalars, $U = W^{-1}V = \kappa$. This gives us the desired result, that $$V = WU = ({\mathbf w}_k \cdots {\mathbf w}_1){\kappa} = {\mathbf w}_k \cdots {\mathbf w}_2({\kappa}{\mathbf w}_1)$$ is a product of nonnull vectors, hence is a versor.

  • Condition 3 is unneeded. As I show in my answer, you only need condition 4 and the fact that $V$ is invertible, so your conditions 1, 2, 4 are enough. – Nicholas Todoroff Mar 08 '25 at 18:15