I have shown that an almost simple group has a non-abelian simple socle, and that a finite group with a non-abelian simple socle is almost simple, but is this true for infinite groups?
To prove that a finite group with a non-abelian simple socle is almost simple, I used the argument in this question - however, this relies on showing $\mathrm{C}_{G}(\mathrm{Soc}(G))$ is trivial by contradiction, saying that it is normal and so must contain the unique minimal normal subgroup $\mathrm{Soc}(G)$. In an infinite group, this may not necessarily hold, since there might not be a minimal normal subgroup inside $\mathrm{C}_{G}(\mathrm{Soc}(G))$. Is it true that an infinite group with a non-abelian simple socle is almost simple; if so then how would I go about proving this, and if not is there a counterexample?
Here I am taking $G$ being almost simple to mean that $\mathrm{Inn}(S) \subseteq G \subseteq \mathrm{Aut}(S)$ for a non-abelian simple group $S$.