I have seen the following statement in three places: David Gabai's paper Foliations and the topology of 3-manifolds (in the introduction, for Reebless foliations so slightly more general) and Danny Calegri's book Foliations and the Geometry of 3-Manifolds (page 166, Historical Remark) and Mehdi Yazdi's notes Foliations and Three-Dimensional Manifolds:
Theorem:
Let $ M\neq S^1 \times S^2 $ be a closed, orientable 3-manifold that admits a co-orientable taut foliation. Then $ M $ is irreducible.
However, I believe this statement to be incorrect. The manifold $ S^1\times S^2 $ finitely covers $ \mathbb{R}P^3 \# \mathbb{R}P^3 $ (see the first answer to this question), and since $ S^1\times S^2 $ admits a co-orientable taut foliation, this foliation descends to a co-orientable taut foliation on $ \mathbb{R}P^3 \# \mathbb{R}P^3 $ via the covering map. But $ \mathbb{R}P^3 \# \mathbb{R}P^3 $ is clearly not irreducible, contradicting the theorem.
My Question:
- Is this theorem actually true, and if so, why is $ \mathbb{R}P^3 \# \mathbb{R}P^3$ not a counterexample as I've argued?
I suspect that the inherited taut foliation on $ \mathbb{R}P^3 \# \mathbb{R}P^3 $ is not co-orientable. However I struggle to see why.
I have also seen the same theorem (Theorem 4.35 in here for example), but instead of stating $M \neq S^1 \times S^2$, it is stated that $M$ is not finitely covered by $S^1 \times S^2$. This makes me tend to think that the statement might be wrong after all.
Thank you for your help.