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How can I prove the following identity, $$\int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{\pi^2x^2 + x^2\log^2\log(x)} \mathrm dx = F-e$$ where $F$ is the Fransén–Robinson constant.

I have verified the result numerically using Wolfram alpha. This integral was given as a representation for $F$ in the paper Fransén-Robinson Constant (Edgar Valdebenito), equation $(33)$. Little context/proof is given.

The Fransén–Robinson, $F \approx 2.8077702420285\cdots$ represents the area between the graph of the reciprocal Gamma function $\Gamma(x)^{-1}$, and the positive x axis. It is no coincidence that $F$ is somewhat close to $e$; by considering the series expansion of the integral-definition of $F$ gives (wikipedia)

$$F=\int _{0}^{\infty }{\frac {1}{\Gamma (x)}}\,dx\approx \sum _{n=1}^{\infty }{\frac {1}{\Gamma (n)}}=\sum _{n=0}^{\infty }{\frac {1}{n!}} = e$$

The integral somehow captures the difference between the two constants, $F-e$. I am unsure how to relate the original integral to the closed form above (performing substitution on $\log\log(x)$ leads to another tricky integral). Similar integrals are given in the same paper, yet how can they be shown to clearly evaluate to $F-e$?

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Let $I$ be the integral given. Applying the substitution $x= e^t$ (provided by Tyma in the comments) gives the following integral

\begin{align*} I &= \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{e^t}{\pi^2 e^{2t} + \log^2(t)e^{2t}}\mathrm dt = \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{e^{-t}}{\pi^2 + \log^2(t)} \mathrm dt= \end{align*}

Which can be evaluated using the following identity (by Ramanujan). See the very nice answer given in this post, which gives a proof of the identity.

$$\boxed{\int_{0}^\infty\frac{x^t}{\Gamma(1+t)}\,dt = e^x - \int_0^\infty \frac{e^{-xt}}{t(\pi^2+\log^2t)}\, dt}$$

$$\int_{0}^\infty\frac{tx^{t-1}}{\Gamma(1+t)}\,dt = e^x + \int_0^\infty \frac{e^{-xt}}{(\pi^2+\log^2t)}\, dt$$

$$\int_{0}^\infty\frac{x^{t-1}}{\Gamma(t)}\,dt = e^x + \int_0^\infty \frac{e^{-xt}}{(\pi^2+\log^2t)}\, dt$$

Where I differentiated the equation with respect to $x$ and simplified using properties of $\Gamma(x)$. Substituting $x=1$ (and recalling the definition of the Fransén–Robinson constant), we see that

$$\int_{0}^\infty\frac{1}{\Gamma(t)}\,dt = e + \int_0^\infty \frac{e^{-t}}{(\pi^2+\log^2t)}\, dt$$

$$F = e + \int_0^\infty \frac{e^{-t}}{(\pi^2+\log^2t)}\, dt$$

$$F = e + I$$

as desired.