How can I prove the following identity, $$\int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{\pi^2x^2 + x^2\log^2\log(x)} \mathrm dx = F-e$$ where $F$ is the Fransén–Robinson constant.
I have verified the result numerically using Wolfram alpha. This integral was given as a representation for $F$ in the paper Fransén-Robinson Constant (Edgar Valdebenito), equation $(33)$. Little context/proof is given.
The Fransén–Robinson, $F \approx 2.8077702420285\cdots$ represents the area between the graph of the reciprocal Gamma function $\Gamma(x)^{-1}$, and the positive x axis. It is no coincidence that $F$ is somewhat close to $e$; by considering the series expansion of the integral-definition of $F$ gives (wikipedia)
$$F=\int _{0}^{\infty }{\frac {1}{\Gamma (x)}}\,dx\approx \sum _{n=1}^{\infty }{\frac {1}{\Gamma (n)}}=\sum _{n=0}^{\infty }{\frac {1}{n!}} = e$$
The integral somehow captures the difference between the two constants, $F-e$. I am unsure how to relate the original integral to the closed form above (performing substitution on $\log\log(x)$ leads to another tricky integral). Similar integrals are given in the same paper, yet how can they be shown to clearly evaluate to $F-e$?