I'm reading Greenberg's "Algebraic Topology" and I have the next proposition:
Proposition A contractible space is simply connected.
Now, to prove this, author use the following lemma:
Lemma Given $F:I \times I \to X$, set $\alpha(t) = F(0,t),\, \beta(t) = F(1,t),\, \gamma(s) = F(s,0),\, \delta(s) = F(s,1)$, so diagrammatically we have this:
Then, $\delta \sim \alpha^{-1} \gamma \beta$ rel $(0,1)$.
Now, he prove the proposition: Although every loop $\sigma$ at a point $x_0$ is homotopic as a map with the constant loop, we do not know if they are homotopic relative to $(0,1)$.
Now, we use lemma. Because $X$ is contractible, we can obtain such an $F$ with $\delta = \sigma, \gamma = x_0$ and $\alpha = \beta$ (since $\sigma$ induces a map of the circle into $X$ which is homotopic to the constant map at $x_0$), hence $\sigma$ is homotopically trivial.
I don't understand how we can obtain such an $F$ with $\alpha = \beta$ and how this map of $S^1$ into $X$ help... And also I know simply connected spaces are path-connected and this is not proved by the author. This result from some fact in the proof?
