I'm trying to prove the exercise:
Let $\{f_n\}$ be a sequence of real-valued Lebesgue measurable functions on $\mathbb{R}$. Assume that $f_n\rightarrow f$ Lebesgue almost everywhere as $n\rightarrow\infty$, f is also real-valued Lebesgue measurable function, also, $||xf_n(x)||_{L^1(\mathbb{R})}\le1$ and $||f_n(x)||_{L^2((\mathbb{R}))}\le1$.
How can I prove $\{f_n\},f\in L^1(\mathbb{R})$ and that $$||f_n-f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R})}\rightarrow0,\quad as \;n\rightarrow\infty?$$
I think the proof might be very similar to proof of Dominated Convergence Theorem, but I don't know how to dominate $f_n$, and I feel two conditions about $xf_n$ and $f_n$ are a bit strange. Can you give me some hints?