I am self-studying product measures, and the book I am reading did not address this question about the relationship between the integrability with respect to product measure and the integrability of each section, which I think is interesting and confusing. To be more specific:
Let $(X,\mathscr{A},\mu)$ and $(Y,\mathscr{B},\nu)$ be $\sigma$-finite measure space. Let $f:X\times Y\to[-\infty,+\infty]$ be $\mathscr{A}\times\mathscr{B}$-measurable. Define the sections $f_x:Y\to[-\infty,+\infty]$ and $f^y:X\to[-\infty,+\infty]$ by letting $f_x(y)=f(x,y)$ and $f^y(x)=f(x,y)$. Then is it true that $f$ is $\mu\times\nu$-integrable if and only if $f_x$ is $\nu$-integrable and $f^y$ is $\mu$-integrable?
I couldn't find a good way to prove or disprove it. Could someone please help me out? Thanks a lot in advance!