The interplay of Euclid's lemma and the Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic has me confused. In the Wikipedia article on the Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic we have that every integer greater than 1 can be represented uniquely as a product of prime numbers, up to the order of the factors: $n=p_1p_2…p_r$ where any $p_k$ is prime, and order doesn't matter. Good. But then later it gives Euclid's lemma towards the proof:
If a prime $p$ divides the product $ab$, then $p$ divides either $a$ or $b$ or both.
The proofs I've seen say that by strong induction, any composite number in the basic form $ab$ can be seen as $a=p_1,p_2…p_j$ and $b=p_1,p_2…p_k$, i.e., they are each the products of primes. This seems circular, i.e., we're proving FToA with itself, albeit broken down (mysteriously for me) with strong induction. I found this post which states:
If $n$ is not prime, then we can choose some natural numbers $a$ and $b$, such that $n=ab$, where $a<n$ and $b<n$. Thus, by the inductive hypothesis, each of $a$ and $b$ is either prime or a product of primes, and since $n=ab$, it follows that $n$ is a product of primes.
seems to be getting to the heart of the matter, but how does it happen? My problem is how exactly is strong induction accomplishing this? It would seem to a programmer that all you're really doing is some drill-down recursion. So yes, how does strong induction bring about the necessary drill-down recursion behavior to break apart $a$ and $b$ over and over until all factors are prime? I've read other posts supposedly answering this, but no they don't. EL and FToA work together on this trick, so I'd like it specifically dealt with, not just canceled as duplicate.