I need help to look for counter-examples of a conjecture (reformulation nr 2):
$f\in\mathbb Z[X_1,\dots,X_n],\;n>1,$ not independent of any variable and not such that $f(X_1,\dots,X_n)(X_1+\cdots +X_n)\equiv 0\pmod 2$ and not possible to factorize with integer valued polynomials* in $\mathbb Q[X_1,\dots,X_n]$ is irreducible iff for all primes big enough $p$ there exists a partition $p=\sum N_k$, $N_k>0$, such that $f(N_1,\dots,N_n)$ is prime.
I have tested some irreducible polynomials but have found no exception. The background is mostly the question
Any odd number is of form $a+b$ where $a^2+b^2$ is prime
where the polynomial $X^2+Y^2$ was tested up to $10^8$.
I have tested
$x^2+y^2+z^2$
$x^3+y^3+z^3$
$xy+yz+zx$
$x^3+y^3+z^3-3xyz$
$x^2+yz+z$
$x+y+z^2$
$x^5+y^5+z^5$
$x^5+y^5-z^5$
$x^3-y^2+xz$
$x^2+y^2+z^2+xy+yz$
$x^3+y^3+z^3+xyz$
$x^2+x+yz$
No meaning testing reducible polynomials, since the reverse part is obvious.
I'm asking ChatGPT for irreducible polynomials, but if someone know a more secure source I would be glad to know it.
(*) A polynomial $f\in\mathbb Q[X_1,\dots,X_n]$ that is a restriction $\mathbb Z^n\to \mathbb Z$.