Let $S$ be a graded ring and $f,g\in S$ be homogeneous of positive degree such that $D_+(g)\subset D_+(f)$, then I wonder if it is true that $S_{(g)}=S_{(fg)}$
I think this result should be true but I did not seem to find the proof. By this question we can assume $fr=g^n$ for some $r\in S$ homogeneous.
We can define $\phi:S_{(g)}\to S_{(fg)}$, $$ \frac{h^{\deg(g)}}{g^{\deg(h)}}\mapsto \frac{f^{\deg(h)}h^{\deg(g)}}{(fg)^{\deg(h)}} $$ and its inverse $S_{(fg)}\to S_{(g)}$, $$ \frac{h^{\deg(f)+\deg(g)}}{(fg)^{\deg(h)}}\mapsto \frac{h^{\deg(f)+\deg(g)}r^{\deg(h)}}{g^{(n+1)\deg(h)}} $$ extending both numerator and denominator by $r^{\deg(h)}$. I know this site is not for checking correctness of proof. But I want to know if I am in right direction. Thanks.