Find a counterexample for the following statement.
"Let $f : [1, 6] \to \mathbb{R}$ be a continuous function such that $f(1) = f(6)$. Show that there exists $p \in [1, 6]$ such that $f(p) = f(p + 3)$."
If the problem would have been $f(p) = f(p + 3.5)$, then we can just apply IVP on $g(x) = f(x) - f(x+3.5)$. However, for $f(p) = f(p + 3)$, this seems to be challenging to prove. I am not getting a counterexample, either. Please help.