We have the definition that $\imath=\sqrt{-1}$ correct. Then does it follow that $$ \sqrt{1-x}=\imath\sqrt{x-1} $$ It seems to me that this is obvious from the definition and products of square roots since we have $$ \imath\sqrt{x-1}=\sqrt{-1}\sqrt{x-1}=\sqrt{-1(x-1)}=\sqrt{1-x} $$ however can't seem to find this plainly written anywhere. Is this indeed always correct?
I have just randomly chosen the argument of the square root function to be $1-x$ or $x-1$ here. However, does the actual value of this (say being positive/negative or real/complex) change anything or is this property always true?
EDIT: Assuming that $a,b$ are real numbers and that $D=\sqrt{\frac{a^2}{b^2}-1}$ is a positive real number, then is it true that $$ \sqrt{1-\frac{a^2}{b^2}} = \imath D $$ Because I know $D$ is a real positive number, it seems that I know that the expression on the LHS of the equation above has to be purely imaginary and so it seems there should be no reason why this isn't true.
However, is this just one specific case where it holds but in general it isn't always true?
Further, can someone please explain what is meant by @David K's comment and which of my rationalizations are correct and where the other goes wrong (also in comments).
Further, I agree that the other question linked in the comments is essentially asking the same thing, however, I don't think any of the answers there completely satisfy my concerns.