Following is proof of Zariski’s lemma by Zariski himself:
Let $k$ be a field and let $B$ be a finitely generated $k$-algebra. Suppose that $B$ is a field. Then $B$ is a finite algebraic extension of $k$. (This is another version of Hilbert’s Nullstellensatz. The following proof is due to Zariski. For other proofs, see (5.24), (7.9).)
Let $x_1,…,x_n$ generate $B$ as a $k$-algebra. The proof is by induction on $n$. If $n=1$ the result is clearly true, so assume $n\gt 1$. Let $A=k[x_1]$ and let $K=k(x_1)$ be the field of fraction of $A$. By the inductive hypothesis, $B$ is finite algebraic extension of $K$, i.e. coefficient of the form $a/b$ where $a$ and $b$ are in $A$. If $f$ is product of the denominators of all these coefficient, then each of $x_2,…,x_n$ is integral over $A_f$. Hence $B$ and therefore $K$ is integral over $A_f$.
Suppose $x_1$ is transcendental over $k$. Then $A$ is integrally closed, because it is a unique factorization domain. Hence $A_f$ is integrally closed (5.12), and therefore $A_f=K$, which is clearly absurd. Hence $x_1$ is algebraic over $k$, hence $K$ (and therefore $B$) is a finite extension of $k$.
I am filling detail in given solution: If $n=1$ and $x_1$ is transcendental over $K$, then $B=k[x_1]\cong$ polynomial ring $k[X]$ in one indeterminate. Which contradict $B$ is a field.
Note $K=k(x_1)$ is smallest subfield of $B$ containing $A$, so $K\subseteq B$. We have $A\subseteq A_f\subseteq K$, first inclusion follows from natural homomorphism $A\to A_f$ is injective since $A$ is integral domain, and second from $K=(A-\{0\})^{-1}A$. So $B=A_f[x_2,…,x_n]$ is finitely generated $A_f$-algebra. Since $x_2,…,x_n$ are integral over $A_f$, we have $B$ is integral over $A_f$.
By this post, fraction field of $A_f$ is $K$. So $A_f$ is integrally closed by (5.12). Since $K$ is integral over $A_f$, we have $A_f=K$. In particular, $1/x_1=a/f^m$ for some $a\in A$ and $m\geq 0$. Then $x_1a-f^m=0$. Which contradict initial assumption of $x_1$ is transcendental over $k$.
Question: I am bit unsure with second and third paragraph of my filling detail. Is there an easier way to think of localization $A_f$ as subset of $B$? I think, we have $A_f\cong A[f^{-1}]$ and clearly $A[f^{-1}]\subseteq B$. In solution manual on net, proof of $A_f=K$ doesn’t look as straightforward as mine.