I am attempting to find the probability that each hand of 13 cards from a deck of 52 cards contains exactly one ace. My approach is to use conditional probability. Below is my approach, and I would appreciate guidance as to what is specifically causing a wrong final answer
Let's define A, B, C, D as the events that the 1st hand has 1 ace, the 2nd hand has 1 ace, the 3rd hand has 1 ace, the 4th hand has 1 ace.
Then, we need P(ABCD) = P(A) * P(B/A) * P(C/AB) * P(D/ABC)
P(A) = 4 * $\binom{48}{12}$ / $\binom{52}{13}$
P(B/A) = 3 * $\binom{48}{12}$ / $\binom{51}{13}$ --> My logic here is that I only know the first player's hand has 1 ace. So there are 51 cards that are equally likely to be in the 2nd person's hand, hence the $\binom{51}{13}$ denominator. For the numerator, we have 3 aces left and can have any of the 48 non-aces in the hand with equal probability, of which we choose 12.
P(C/AB) = 2 * $\binom{48}{12}$ / $\binom{50}{13}$
P(D/ABC) = 1 * $\binom{48}{12}$ / $\binom{49}{13}$
Multiplying these gives me 0.02, which is not the correct answer of 0.105. I would appreciate anyone's help in correcting the mistake with this approach, thanks!