Suppose for the moment that $x$ is a complex number. We
will assume $f(x)$ and $1/f(x)$ are analytic at $x$ so
they both have power series there with some non-zero
radius of convergence. Take $\rho\ll$ the lesser of the
two and take $\rho=1$ if both converge everywhere. We
then get for the sum
$$\sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k {n+1\choose k+1}
f^{k+1}(x)
\frac{n!}{2\pi i} \int_{|z-x|=\rho}
\frac{1}{(z-x)^{n+1}} \frac{1}{f^k(z)} \; dz.$$
This is
$$\frac{n!}{2\pi i} \int_{|z-x|=\rho} \frac{f(z)}{(z-x)^{n+1}}
\sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k {n+1\choose k+1}
f^{k+1}(x) \frac{1}{f^{k+1}(z)}\; dz
\\ = \frac{n!}{2\pi i} \int_{|z-x|=\rho}
\frac{f(z)}{(z-x)^{n+1}} \; dz
\\ + \frac{n!}{2\pi i} \int_{|z-x|=\rho}
\frac{f(z)}{(z-x)^{n+1}} \sum_{k=-1}^n (-1)^k {n+1\choose k+1}
f^{k+1}(x) \frac{1}{f^{k+1}(z)}\; dz
\\ = f^{(n)}(x) - \frac{n!}{2\pi i} \int_{|z-x|=\rho}
\frac{f(z)}{(z-x)^{n+1}}
\left[1-\frac{f(x)}{f(z)}\right]^{n+1} \; dz
\\ = f^{(n)}(x) - \frac{n!}{2\pi i} \int_{|z-x|=\rho}
\frac{1}{f^n(z)}
\left[\frac{f(z)-f(x)}{z-x}\right]^{n+1} \; dz
= f^{(n)}(x).$$
Expanding the bracketed term into a power series about
$x$ we find
$$g(z) = f'(x)+f''(x)(z-x)/2+f'''(x)(z-x)^2/6+\cdots$$
so it goes to a constant $f'(x)$ with no more pole at
$z=x.$ More importantly it is convergent in the
neighborhood of $x$ so it represents an analytic
function there. Integrating $g^{n+1}(z)/f^n(z)$ which
is the product of two analytic terms we obtain a zero
contribution from the integral which concludes the
argument.