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Let $f: \mathbb{R}^d \to \mathbb{R}$ be continuous, but possibly not differentiable. Let $v$ be a random vector selected uniformly from within the $\ell_2$ unit ball. Let $u$ be a random vector selected uniformly from the surface of the $\ell_2$ unit ball. Define $g(x) = \mathbb{E}_v [f(x + v)]$. I want to prove that:

  1. $g$ is a differentiable function of $x$.
  2. The gradient of $g$ can be computed as $\nabla g(x) = d \mathbb{E}_u[f(x+u)u]$.

It is clear to me that this provable in $d=1$ via the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus. But I cannot prove it for $d > 1$.

This result is stated in Lemma 1 of https://arxiv.org/pdf/cs/0408007. I tried to parse the proof, but it cites Stokes Theorem, and all the statements of Stokes Theorem that I found were stated using the language of differential geometry (which is out of my wheelhouse).

Since this result is quite common, I am curious if there is a proof that does not rely on Stokes Theorem but instead on more traditional measure theory techniques (for instance, the Lebesgue Differentiation Theorem)? Alternatively, is there a version of Stokes Theorem in $\mathbb{R}^d$ that can be stated without any differential geometry, which can then be used to prove the result?

Thank you!

1 Answers1

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Let me first illustrate in the case where $d=2$. In my notation, the coordinates for $\mathbb R^2$ are $(x_1,x_2)$, while the coordinates for the unit ball are $(v_1,v_2)$.

Let $B_d$ denote the unit ball in $d$ dimensions, and let $S_{d-1}$ denote the sphere which is the boundary of $B_d$. When I say $\text{vol }B_d$, I mean the $d$-dimensional volume of the unit ball, and similarly $\text{vol }S_{d-1}$ denotes the $(d-1)$-dimensional volume of $S_{d-1}$. Then $$ g(x_1,x_2)=\frac1{\text{vol } B_2}\int_{-1}^1\int_{-\sqrt{1-v_2^2}}^{\sqrt{1-v_2^2}}f(x_1+v_1,x_2+v_2)\,dv_1\,dv_2 $$ To compute $\nabla g=(\frac{\partial}{\partial x_1}g,\frac{\partial}{\partial x_2}g)$, start by looking at the first coordinate. $$ \begin{align} &\frac{\partial}{\partial x_1}g(x_1,x_2) \\ &=\frac1{\text{vol } B_2}\frac{\partial}{\partial x_1}\int_{-1}^1\int_{-\sqrt{1-v_2^2}}^{\sqrt{1-v_2^2}}f(x_1+v_1,x_2+v_2)\,dv_1\,dv_2 \\ &=\frac1{\text{vol } B_2}\int_{-1}^1 \color{black}{\frac{\partial}{\partial x_1} \int_{-\sqrt{1-v_2^2}}^{\sqrt{1-v_2^2}}f(x_1+v_1,x_2+v_2)\,dv_1}\,dv_2\tag1 \\ &=\frac1{\text{vol } B_2}\int_{-1}^1 \big[f(x_1+\sqrt{1-v_2^2},x_2+v_2)-f(x_1-\sqrt{1-v_2^2},x_2+v_2)\big]\,dv_2\tag2 \\ &=\frac1{\text{vol } B_2}\int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2} \big[f(x_1+\cos\theta,x_2+\sin\theta)-f(x_1-\cos\theta,x_2+\sin\theta)\big]\cdot \cos\theta\,d\theta \\ &=\frac1{\text{vol } B_2}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} f(x_1+\cos\theta,x_2+\sin\theta) \cos\theta\,d\theta \\ &=\frac1{\text{vol } B_2}\int_{(u_1,u_2)\in \text{unit circle}} f(x_1+u_1,x_2+u_2)\cdot u_1\,du \end{align} $$ Explanations:

  1. Here, I interchanged the order of differentiation and integration, which is a special case of the Leibniz integral rule.

  2. You already know that, in one dimension, that $\frac{d}{dx}\int_{a}^b f(x+t)\,dt=f(x+b)-f(x+a)$, which is provable via FOTC. I am applying this to the innermost integral of the previous line.

By the exact same logic, you also get $\frac{\partial}{\partial x_2}g=\int_{(u_1,u_2)\in \text{unit circle}} f(x_1+u_1,x_2+u_2)\cdot u_2\,du$. Combining these two equations into a single vector equation gives $$ \begin{align} \nabla g &= \frac1{\text{vol } B_2}\int_{u\in \text{unit circle}} f(x_1+u_1,x_2+u_2)\cdot u\,du \\&=\frac{\text{vol }S_1}{\text{vol } B_2}\cdot \frac1{\text{vol } S_1}\int_{u\in \text{unit circle}} f(x_1+u_1,x_2+u_2)\cdot u\,du \\&=\frac{2\pi}{\pi}\cdot\mathbb E_{u\in S_1}[f(x+u)u] \end{align} $$

The exact same proof blueprint can be applied to prove the result in $d$ dimensions; the notation just gets more cumbersome. For each $i\in \{1,\dots,d\}$, when evaluating $\frac{\partial}{\partial x_i} g$, you will choose an order of integration so the innermost integral is with respect to $v_i$. Then, you move the partial derivative $\frac{\partial}{\partial x_i}$ next to the innermost integral, and apply the law $\frac{d}{dx}\int_{a}^b f(x+t)\,dt=f(x+b)-f(x+a)$ to that innermost integral. You are now left with $d-1$ integrals, and with a change of variables, you can realize this as an integral over $S_{d-1}$.

I could write this all out if needed, but I would rather not.

Mike Earnest
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