It's been a while since I've been out of school (now a high school Math teacher) and I'm working on just some standard bijections between different objects with some of our more advanced students.
The other day we were playing around with the stereographic projection in 1-dimension ($S^1 \setminus \{\text{a point}\} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$) which got me thinking about the standard one (i.e. Riemann Sphere to $\mathbb{C}$ or $\mathbb{R}^2$). This kind of led me down a rabbit hole circling back to a question that I never fully answered for myself during undergrad which was the following:
Given that the stereographic projection works as a bijection from the Riemann Sphere to both $\mathbb{C}$ and $\mathbb{R}^2$ , why is it that we treat infinity as a point only in $\mathbb{C}$ and not in $\mathbb{R}^2$? Looking at the bijection, it seems we could make the same argument for $\infty$ being a point in $\mathbb{R}^2$ as we do in $\mathbb{C}$ (i.e. the north pole of the Riemann Sphere), so I'm curious about whether it's a complex-analysis-based choice (I understand holomorphicity is a much nicer condition and might benefit from the choice to make infinity a point) or if there is something more fundamental about the field structure that allows us to deal with $\infty$ as a point in $\mathbb{C}$ but not in $\mathbb{R}^2$?
Thanks for the help!