Let $A\subset\mathbb{R}$ be a set with empty interior. Does it then follow that $A$ is Lebesgue measurable?
Equivalently, can you provide a subset of $\mathbb{R}$ with empty interior that is not Lebesgue measurable?
I'm having trouble wrapping my head around the relationship of sets with empty interior and Lebesgue measurability.
I understand that a set with measure zero must have empty interior, and that empty interior does not in general imply measure zero. To prove the latter claim, fat Cantor sets are usually invoked and shown to have positive Lebesgue measure, but they still have a Lebesgue measure.
Is this right?
– om harmoni Oct 11 '24 at 01:13