In this paper by Good and Tree, the following result is mentioned without proof as part of Proposition 6.5:
Each of the following statements imply those beneath it.
The countable union of finite sets is countable.
Every $\omega$-tree has an infinite chain or an infinite antichain.
Every countable collection of [non-empty] finite sets has a choice function.
I know that the first and last statements are equivalent, so that these statements are ostensibly all equivalent. I'm stymied on proving the second implication, though.
I began by taking $\{X_n:n<\omega\}$ to be a countably-infinite collection of finite non-empty sets, putting $X=\bigcup_{n<\omega}X_n,$ and letting $$T=\left\{f\in{}^{<\omega}X:\forall n\in\operatorname{dom}(f)\:f(n)\in X_n\right\},$$ where ${}^{<\omega}X$ is the set of all functions $k\to X$ with $k<\omega$. It is readily shown that $\langle T,\subsetneq\rangle$ is an $\omega$-tree. Now, if the tree has an infinite chain $C,$ then $$B=\bigcup_{f\in C}\{g\in T:g\subsetneq f\}$$ is a branch of length $\omega,$ and $f=\bigcup B$ is readily the desired choice function. On the other hand, if the tree has no infinite chain, then it has an infinite antichain, say $A.$ If $A$ happens to be Dedekind-infinite, then there is a countably-infinite antichain $A'\subseteq A,$ and without loss of generality, we may assume that $A'$ has at most one node on each level. Indexing the elements of $A'$ in order of increasing level by $f_n,$ we define $g(X_k)=f_0(k)$ for $k\in\operatorname{dom}(f_0)$ and $g(X_k)=f_{n+1}(k)$ where $k\in\operatorname{dom}(f_{n+1})\setminus\operatorname{dom}(f_n).$ Then $g$ is the desired choice function, and we're done.
If $A$ is infinite and Dedekind-finite, then...what in the world can be done? We need another (even stronger!) Choice principle to conclude that this is impossible, thereby finishing my proof.
Any hints as to how I can proceed?
Added: To see that the first statement implies the second, suppose we are given an $\omega$-tree $T.$ We know $T$ is countably-infinite since each of its countably-infinitely-many non-empty levels is finite. Let $f:\omega\to T$ a bijection. Supposing that $T$ has no infinite antichain, let $A$ be the set of all nodes of $T$ without successor. Since this is readily an antichain, then it is finite, so, put $$m=\max\bigl(\{0\}\cup\{k<\omega:A\cap T_k\ne\emptyset\}\bigr).$$ Let $c_0\in T_{m+1}.$ Given $c_n$ with height greater than $m$, we have by definition of $A$ and $m$ that $c_n$ has a successor, and letting $$c_{n+1}=f\bigl(\min\{k<\omega:c_n<f(k)\}\bigr),$$ the height of $c_{n+1}$ is greater than that of $c_n$, so also greater than $m$. In this way, we recursively define a strictly increasing sequence of points of $T$, so we have an infinite chain, as desired.
To see that the third statement implies the first, suppose that $\mathcal{A}$ is a countable set of finite sets. For each $A\in\mathcal A,$ we have that $A$ is well-orderable, and in particular can be put into bijection with a unique finite ordinal--namely $|A|.$ There are only finitely-many functions $A\to|A|,$ at least one of which is a bijection, and so the set $B_A$ of bijections $A\to|A|$ is a non-empty finite set for each $A\in\mathcal A.$ Since $\mathcal A$ is countable, then we can therefore use a choice function on $\{B_A:A\in\mathcal A\}$ to choose a bijection $g_A:A\to|A|$ for each $A\in\mathcal A.$ Using these bijections, we can readily show that $$\left|\bigcup\mathcal A\right|\le\sum_{A\in\mathcal A}|A|.$$ Then, since $\mathcal A$ is well-orderable and each $|A|$ is a finite cardinal, then $$\sum_{A\in\mathcal A}|A|\le\max\left\{|\mathcal A|,\sup_{A\in\mathcal A}|A|\right\}\le\aleph_0,$$ whence $\bigcup\mathcal A$ is countable, as desired.
If "Dedekind-finite = finite" holds, then showing the second statement implies the third is simple, but according to the paper, the implication is supposed to hold in $\mathsf{ZF}.$ It's possible that this was simply an error on the authors' part (like leaving off the "non-empty" from the third statement), and that it should specify Dedekind-infinite antichains.
If it is correct, though, then my approach quite simply won't work, since given an arbitrary infinite antichain, it need not have a countably-infinite subset. Certainly any such antichain will be a union of a countably-infinite collection of non-empty finite sets, but it's consistent with $\mathsf{ZF}$ that a countably-infinite union of pairs may be Dedekind-finite.
My question is this: Is it known whether the second statement (as originally written) is equivalent to or strictly weaker than the other two in $\mathsf{ZF}$? If it is equivalent, then can you direct me to a source in which it is proved, or outline an alternate proof technique that does the trick?
[Cross-posted to Math.Overflow.]