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Question: test the convergence or divergence of the following series : $$\sum_{n=1}^{+\infty}\frac{n^{n-2}}{e^nn!}$$ What I tried: I could not find a conclusion using d'Alembert ratio test, how would we go about doing this using rabbes test? I'm a first year college student.

Kolakoski54
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4 Answers4

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Use the Stirling approximation $$ n!\sim\sqrt{2\pi n}\frac{n^n}{e^n}, $$ so that the term of the series becomes $$ \sim\frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}n^{5/2}} $$ which would give a converging series.

Lutz Lehmann
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  • is there any way to do it without knowing this sterling approximation ? – kakarot_DB Sep 24 '24 at 15:32
  • This is technically a correct solution, but not really a relevant answer given that OP mentioned him being a first year student. You don't need anything nearly as advanced as Stirling's approximation to prove the convergence of this series. Convergence tests are usually taught much earlier in calculus. (and before students learn about Stirling's approximation, they are obviously not allowed to use it) – Mark Sep 24 '24 at 15:45
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Here is a convergence test: If $\sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n$ and $\sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} b_n$ are series of positive terms and $\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}\leq\frac{b_{n+1}}{b_n}$ holds for all $n\in\mathbb{N}$ then $\sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} b_n<\infty$ implies $\sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n<\infty$.

If you haven't seen this convergence test before then try to prove it. As a hint, note that:

$a_n=\frac{a_n}{a_{n-1}}\cdot\frac{a_{n-1}}{a_{n-2}}\cdot...\cdot\frac{a_2}{a_1}\cdot a_1$

Now use this test with $a_n=\frac{n^{n-2}}{e^n n!}$ and $b_n=\frac{1}{n^2}$.

Mark
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The sequence ${n^n\over e^n n!}$ is decreasing. Indeed $$ {n^n\over e^n n!}{e^{n+1}(n+1)!\over (n+1)^{n+1}}={e\over (1+{1\over n})^n}>1$$ Thus $$a_n={n^n\over e^n n!}{1\over n^2}\le {1^1\over e^11!}{1\over n^2}={1\over en^2}$$

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First observe that if $a_n=\dfrac{n^{n-2}}{e^n n!},$ then $$ \frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}=\frac{\big(1+\frac{1}{n}\big)^n}{e}\cdot \left(\frac{n}{n+1}\right)^2<\left(\frac{n}{n+1}\right)^2 $$ since $\big(1+\frac{1}{n}\big)^n<e$. So $$ a_n=\frac{a_n}{a_{n-1}}\cdot\frac{a_{n-1}}{a_{n-2}}\cdots\frac{a_2}{a_{1}}\cdot a_1 < \left(\frac{n-1}{n}\right)^2 \left(\frac{n-2}{n-1}\right)^2\cdots \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^2 a_1=\frac{a_1}{n^2}=b_n $$ Then, according to the comparison test, since $\sum b_n<\infty,\,$ then also $\sum a_n<\infty$.