Context:
I am taking a course in analysis at the university. Many problems on $\mathbb{R}$ are easy under Euclidean distance, but I find them difficult under a general metric. So I wonder if an open interval must be open under any metrics.
Consider the metric spaces in the form $(\mathbb{R}, d)$, where $d: \mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ may not be Euclidean.
Is there any metric space $(\mathbb{R},d)$ such that there exists some open interval $(a,b) \subseteq \mathbb{R}$ which is not open in $\mathbb{R}$?
My attempt:
Suppose $(a,b)$ is not open. Then there exists $x \in (a,b)$ such that for any $\varepsilon > 0$, $B(x,\varepsilon) \not \subseteq (a,b)$.
For such a point $x$, for $0 < \varepsilon < x - a$, consider point $y \in B(x,d(x,a + \varepsilon)) \setminus (a,b)$. Then we have $d(x,y) < d(x,a + \varepsilon)$ and $(y \leq a \text{ or } y \geq b)$. Suppose such a point $y \leq a$. Then $$ d(y, a + \varepsilon) \leq d(x, y) + d(x, a + \varepsilon) < 2d(x, a + \varepsilon). $$
But this seems to fail.
Thanks in advance.