Long ago I learned about what I now find is the rank sum test.
I am confused, because what my memory tells me is different from what I find now on wikipedia.
What my memory tells me is it is a test of differently labeled samples, called "u" and "d", calculating a rank sum that is quite like what is described on the net, but without that terms about $n_1,n_2$, and the purpose was to decide if the "u"s and "d"s are significantly ordered one before the other.
It looks to me that language has changed, just like iodine in chemistry is no longer denoted by "J" but nowadays by "I".
Maybe my memory is playing tricks on me, maybe notation and interpretation has changed. Maybe all of that.
That would not be a good question so far, so I try to sharpen it:
given a rank sum $r$ based on $n_1,n_2$, what is the probability that $r>r_0$ when the distributions for samples "u" and "d" would be equal?