Given a linear operator $T:D(T)\to B_2$, with domain $D(T)\subseteq B_1$, and with $B_i$ Banach spaces. Let $\sigma(T)$ denote its spectrum. As is nicely explained (among other places) in
- Difference between the spectrum and point spectrum of an operator.,
- Why do we distinguish the continuous spectrum and the residual spectrum?,
- Meaning of the continuous spectrum and the residual spectrum,
- Intuition behind spectrum of an operator,
we define:
- The approximate point spectrum $\sigma_{\rm ap}(T)$ as the set of $\lambda\in\mathbb C$ such that $T-\lambda I$ is not bounded below.
- The continuous spectrum $\sigma_c(T)$ as the set of $\lambda\in\mathbb C$ such that $T-\lambda I$ is injective and its range is a proper dense subset of $B_2$.
At the same time, as mentioned e.g. here, by the open mapping theorem we know that if $T:B_1\to B_2$ is a bounded linear operator (still between Banach spaces), and $T$ is invertible, then its inverse $T^{-1}$ must also be bounded, and therefore $T$ must be bounded below.
This should mean that $\lambda\in\rho(T)$ iff $T-\lambda I$ is bounded below. Or in other words $\lambda\in \sigma(T)$ iff $T-\lambda I$ is not bounded below, i.e. $\lambda\in \sigma_{\rm ap}(T)$ is an approximate eigenvalue in the approximate point spectrum.
But the way these things are discussed makes me doubt my conclusion. For example the Wiki page says at some point that "It can be shown that the approximate point spectrum of a bounded multiplication operator equals its spectrum", and the qualifier "multiplication" here would imply my conclusion is wrong. I can also see that $\sigma_{\rm ap}(T)$ and $\sigma(T)$ might differ when $T$ is unbounded, but I couldn't find an explicit example of this.
So in summary, does $\sigma_{\rm ap}(T)=\sigma(T)$ when $T$ is bounded? And if it's true that $\sigma_{\rm ap}(T)\neq \sigma(T)$ only when $T$ is unbounded, what is an example where they differ?