I was reading this page Probability that cubic of integer ends with 11 and one of the answers states:
"If $^3 ≡ 1$ mod$ 100$, then $^2 ≡ 1$ and so is a unit mod $100$. The group of units mod $100$ has order $\phi(100)=40$. Therefore, since gcd$(40,3)=1$, the map $ \mapsto ^3$ is a bijection. Thus, there is exactly one such that $^3≡11$ mod $100$."
My question is why the gcd$(40,3)=1$ tells us the map is bijective. I see the $3$ comes from our map being $x$ to $x^3$, but don't see why this forces it to be a bijection. (I see we can just bash this out, so the statement is indeed correct).
BTW: I didn't leave a comment on the initial page because I don't have the ability to do so.