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We observe that the statement is true for $n$ a prime. But what happens when $n$ is composite? I have verified it for some numbers. However, I am not finding any proof or counter example. Can anyone help me with this?

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Exactly, we can prove that

If $n>1$, then the sum of all positive integers less than $n$ and prime to $n$ is $\frac{n}{2}\phi(n)$, where $\phi$ is Euler-phi function.

Let $a$ be a positive integer less than $n$ and prime to $n$. Then $au+nv = 1$, for some $u,v \in \Bbb Z$. Therefore $n(v+u)+ (n-a)(-u) = 1$. Since $u+v, -u$ are integers, $n-a$ is also a positive integer less than $n$ and prime to $n$. Therefore $\phi(n)$ positive inegers less than $n$ and prime to $n$ can be expressed as $a_1,a_2,\cdots,(n-a_2),(n-a_1)$.

Let $S = a_1+a_2+\cdots+(n-a_2)+(n-a_1)$. Also, write it in a reverse order that is $S = (n-a_1)+(n-a_2)+\cdots+a_2+a_1$. Which implies $2S = \phi(n).n \iff S = \frac{n}{2}\phi(n)$.

Now observe only one thing: $\phi(n)$ is an even integer if $n>2$. For proof of this statement, you can look at this.

Afntu
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  • Please strive not to post more (dupe) answers to dupes of FAQs. This is enforced site policy, see here. It's best for site health to delete this answer (which also minimizes community time wasted on dupe processing.) – Bill Dubuque Jul 02 '24 at 05:15
  • Ok, I understand this question is a duplicate question. But I hope I didn't copy anyone else's answer. Can't we keep this as an answer? – Afntu Jul 02 '24 at 05:30
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    This is a FAQ and this proof is already posted probably 50 to 100 times. Duplication ad infinitum greatly complicates searching for answers. See the linked site policy. – Bill Dubuque Jul 02 '24 at 05:38