Let $B(t)$ be a Wiener process. We know that $X^{(1)}(t) = B(t)$ and $X^{(2)}(t) = -B(t)$ both weak solutions to the SDE \begin{equation} dX(t) = dB(t), \quad X(0) = 0. \end{equation}
Now let $B(t)$ and $W(t)$ be independent Wiener processes, and let $X(t)$ and $Y(t)$ be two Ito processes satisfying the SDEs \begin{equation} d X(t) = dB(t) + dW(t) \quad \text{and}\quad d Y(t) = dB(t) - dW(t). \end{equation} The solution of both SDEs is \begin{equation} X(t) = X(0) + B(t) + W(t) \quad \text{and} \quad Y(t) = Y(0) + B(t) - W(t) \end{equation} My understanding is that if $X(0) = Y(0)$, the distribution of these two processes is the same, and then that would mean that I could have written the SDE for $X(t)$ as $d X(t) = dB(t) - dW(t)$ and nothing would change.
Ultimately this leads me to believe that the SDEs \begin{equation} dX(t) = X(t) dt + X(t) dB(t), \quad \text{and} \quad dX(t) = X(t) dt -X(t) dB(t) \end{equation} describe the same process. Or are they the same in a weak sense, but not in a strong sense?