4

Set $\mathfrak{c} = 2^{\aleph_0}$. Say that a set $X \subseteq \mathbb{R}$ has the property $P(X)$ if for any open interval $(a, b)$ we have $|(a, b) \cap X| = \mathfrak{c}$ and $|(a, b) \setminus X| = \mathfrak{c}$. Let $A, B \subseteq \mathbb{R}$ with $P(A)$ and $P(B)$. Does it follow that $A$ and $B$ are homeomorphic?

This question is inspired by https://math.stackexchange.com/a/2805635/491450.

Asaf Karagila
  • 405,794
Smiley1000
  • 4,219
  • 1
    If $C$ is the Cantor set, the set $C+\mathbb Q={x+y:x\in C,,y\in\mathbb Q}$ is not homeomorphic to its complement. – user14111 Jun 14 '24 at 10:09
  • @user14111 Why is it not homeomorphic to its complement? – Smiley1000 Jun 14 '24 at 10:47
  • 2
    I would be VERY SURPRISED if there were fewer than $2^{\mathfrak c}$ many pairwise non-homeomorphic $\mathfrak c$-dense-in-$\mathbb R$ subsets of $\mathbb R.$ – Dave L. Renfro Jun 14 '24 at 14:13
  • I forgot to include the assumption that the sets have $\mathfrak c$-dense complements in my previous comment (i.e. the absence of that assumption was not intended). – Dave L. Renfro Jun 14 '24 at 14:36

1 Answers1

4

Let $X=C+\mathbb Q$ where $C$ is the Cantor set. Although $|(a,b)\cap X|=|(a,b)\setminus X|=\mathbb c$ for every interval $(a,b)$, the set $X$ is not homeomorphic to its complement.

Proof. $X$ is the union of countably many totally disconnected compact sets (translates of $C$). If $\mathbb R\setminus X$ were also the union of countably many totally disconnected compact sets, then $\mathbb R$ would be the union of countably many totally disconnected compact sets. Since totally disconnected compact subsets of $\mathbb R$ are closed and nowhere dense, this would contradict the Baire category theorem.

Why is $|(a,b)\cap X|=\mathfrak c$? It is a property of the Cantor set $C$ that every neighborhood of $0$ contains a subset of $C$ which is similar to $C$ and therefore has cardinality $\mathfrak c$. Therefore, if we choose $t\in(a,b)\cap\mathbb Q$, then every neighborhood of $t$ contains a subset of $C+t$ which is similar to $C$ and has cardinality $\mathfrak c$.

Why is $|(a,b)\setminus X|=\mathfrak c$? The set $(a,b)\setminus X$ is a $G_\delta$ set which is dense in $(a,b)$ and therefore uncountable. By a classical theorem, an uncountable $G_\delta$ subset (or even an uncountable Borel subset) of $\mathbb R$ contains a nonempty perfect set which has cardinality $\mathfrak c$. Alternatively, since $X$ has Lebesgue measure zero, the set $(a,b)\setminus X$ has positive Lebesgue measure, whence it contains a closed subset of positive measure, which has cardinality $\mathfrak c$.

user14111
  • 3,118
  • Thanks! It would be nice if you could incorporate the reasoning for $|(a,b)\cap X|=|(a,b)\setminus X|=\mathbb c$ into the body of the answer. – Smiley1000 Jun 15 '24 at 06:39