Earlier today, I came across a paper that stated (but did not prove!) the following theorem.
Theorem: Let $T:A \rightarrow B$ be a bounded linear Hilbert space map. Then the following are equivalent.
- $T$ has closed range;
- $T^*$ has closed range;
- $T^*T$ has closed range.
The equivalence of (1) and (2) easily follows from the closed range theorem for Banach spaces. I have also managed to show that (1) + (2) implies 3 by using the identity $\text{image}(T) = \ker(T^*)^\perp$, which holds when $T$ has closed range. This identity allows you to show that if $T$ has closed range, then $T^*T$ and $T^*$ have the same range.
I am struggling to show that (3) implies the other conditions though. It seems like there should be a way to maybe take advantage of the fact that $\ker(T^*T) = \ker(T)$ and $\ker(T^*T)^\perp = \text{image}(T^*T)$ (since $T^*T$ has closed range). But I’m not seeing how to put the pieces together. If anyone has a reference for this result, or knows how to prove it, I’d appreciate it!