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In the figure, $OP = 1$ and $PF = 3$. Calculate $r$. $DC$ and $DE$ are tangents. (Answer:$r=2$) enter image description here

Could this issue be resolved only with this data?

I try:

$Point Theorem: FA.FB = FC.FE \implies (3-(r-1).(4+r) = FC.(FC+FE)$

$DC=DE$

$\triangle AEB: AE^2+EB^2 =(2r)^2 = 4r^2$

peta arantes
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4 Answers4

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enter image description here

Let $DO=x$

Using triangle similarity in $\triangle DOP$ and $\triangle FOK$,

$$KO=\frac{4}{x}$$

Thus, $$DK=DO-KO=\frac{x^2-4}{x}$$

Using the Geometric mean theorem in the right angled triangle $\triangle DOC$,

$$CK=\sqrt{DK\cdot KO}=\sqrt{\frac{4(x^2-4)}{x^2}}$$

Now, using the Pythagorean theorem in the right-angled $\triangle COK$,

$$\boxed{r=CO=2}$$

Soham Saha
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1

Yes these values allow to have a unique answer.

Let $G$ be the intersection of line $PD$ with the circle.

Draw the upper tangent issued from $F$ to the circle. Its point of tangency is exactly $G$ (by the duality property of polarity (See Edit below) :

$$\text{Point} \ F \ \leftrightarrow \ \text{Line} \ (F) = \text{ Line } \ PD$$

$$\text{Point} \ D \ \leftrightarrow \ \text{Line} \ (D) = \text{ Line } \ CE$$

Let us recall the important property : if the polar line of any point $M$ (here $D$) with respect to a circle passes through $N$ (here $F$) then, in a symmetrical way, the polar line of $N$ (here $F$) passes through $M$ (here $D$). Then this polar line is $PD$ and its intersection $G$ with the circle is the point of tangency.

$FG$ being a tangent in $G$, it is orthogonal to radius $OG$, which means that triangle $OGF$ is a right triangle.

If we apply in this triangle the Geometric Mean Theorem : the altitude issued from the right angle vertex is the Geometric Mean of the lengths of the sides determined by its foot on the hypotenuse, we get :

$$PG=\sqrt{PO.PF}=\sqrt{3}$$

Now consider right triangle $OPG$ and apply Pythagoras to it.

Edit : In a very short way : what is polarity ?

Let us explain it wrt the unit circle. It is an "hybrid" transformation exchanging :

$$\text{Point} \ P \ \leftrightarrow \ \text{Line} \ (P)\tag{1}$$

where, in the case where $(P)$ is exterior to the circle is the line obtained by joining the two points of tangency of the tangents issued from $P$ (for example, on the figure above, the polar line of $D$ is line $CE$)

There is a parallel analytical definition, which is more general

$$\text{Point} \ P (a,b) \ \leftrightarrow \ \text{Line} \ (P) ax+by=1\tag{1'}$$

This transformation has many properties, some of them being the consequence of the following duality property :

$$\begin{cases}\text{Point} \ A \leftrightarrow \text{Line}(A)\\\text{Point} B \ \leftrightarrow \text{Line} (B)\end{cases} \ \ \ \implies \ \ \ \text{Line} \ AB \leftrightarrow \ \text{Point} \ (A) \cap (B)$$

Jean Marie
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  • Thanks for hel but don't know the polar subject. Could you explain better why the intersection (G) of the circle with PD is exactly the point of tangency of the straight line FG? What is the function of the two tangents that depart from D? – peta arantes May 31 '24 at 17:38
  • I have attempted to write an explanation under the form of an Edit . See my answer here for more. – Jean Marie May 31 '24 at 22:50
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Partial answer:

After you have somehow proven that when the point $E$ varies, $D$ stays on a straight line perpendicular to $FB$ (which is what Jean-Marie has done in her answer), we may then define the point $G$ to be the intersection of $DP$ and the circle. Then consider what happens as $E\to G:\ C\to G$ also, and $D\to G.$ We see that $FG$ is tangent to the circle, and since $GO=r,$ it follows that $\angle FGO = 90^{\circ}.$

Let $h:=GP.$ It is elementary to prove that $\triangle FGP$ and $\triangle GOP$ are similar: $ \angle GPF = \angle GPO = 90^{\circ};\ \angle FGO = 90^{\circ}\implies\angle FGP = 90^{\circ} - \angle PGO = 180^{\circ} - (90^{\circ} + \angle PGO) = \angle GOP,\ $ and finally $\angle PFG = 180^{\circ} - (90^{\circ} + \angle FGP) = 180^{\circ} - (90^{\circ} + \angle GOP) = \angle PGO.$ Therefore the two triangles are similar. We thus have: $3:h = h:1\implies \frac{3}{h} = \frac{h}{1} \implies h^2 = 3.$ Furthermore, $1^2 + h^2 = r^2.$ Therefore, $r^2 = 1^2 + 3 = 4,\implies r = 2.$

Adam Rubinson
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Connect the points $F$ and $O$ to the point $D$. Also, join $C$ and $O$. Let $OD$ bisect $CE$ at $M$. Note that $OM\perp CE$, $DM\perp CE$, and $OC\perp DC$. We have $OF=OP+PF=1+3=4,\ FA=OF-OA=4-r$, and $FB=OF+OB=4+r$.

By the power of a point theorem, $$FA\cdot FB=FC+FE=FC(FC+2CM)$$$$\implies FC^2+2FC\cdot CM=(4-r)(4+r)=16-r^2\tag{1}$$

From the right-angled triangles $\triangle DPF$ and $\triangle DPO$, we can write $$DF^2=PF^2+DP^2=3^2+DO^2-OP^2$$ $$\implies DF^2=3^2-1^2+DO^2=8+DO^2\tag{2}$$

Similarly, from the right-angled triangles $\triangle DMF$, $\triangle DMC$ and $\triangle DCO$, we can write $$DF^2=FM^2+DM^2=(FC+CM)^2+DC^2-CM^2$$ $$\implies DF^2=FC^2+2FC\cdot CM+DO^2-r^2\tag{3}$$ From the equations $(1),\ (2)$ and $(3)$, we have $$8+DO^2=16-r^2+DO^2-r^2=16-2r^2+DO^2\implies r^2=4\implies \boxed{r=2}$$

Hence, the required radius of the circle is $2$ units.

Hope this helps!

Pustam Raut
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