Is there a way to show that $5a(a+1)\over 3a+4$ $\notin \mathbb{N}$ for $a\in \mathbb{N}$ (except when $a=2$)?
The expression has a few different forms, but I don't see how to show this. Any hints are greatly appreciated.
Is there a way to show that $5a(a+1)\over 3a+4$ $\notin \mathbb{N}$ for $a\in \mathbb{N}$ (except when $a=2$)?
The expression has a few different forms, but I don't see how to show this. Any hints are greatly appreciated.
Yes, using polynomial division (multiplying by $9$ to maintain coefficients integers),
we see that $45a(a+1)=(3a+4)(3a-1)5+20,$
so if $3a+4$ divides $5a(a+1)$, then $3a+4$ divides $20$.
Can you take it from here?
since $\bmod n!=!\color{#0a0}{3a}!+!\color{#c00}{4}!:\ \color{#0a0}{3a}\equiv \color{#c00}{-4}.\ $ [note $,(n,c)=1,$ by $,(n,3)=(4,3)=1$] $\ \ $
– Bill Dubuque May 27 '24 at 21:59$3a+4=3(a+1)+1$ and $a+1$ are prime to each other.
So if $\frac{5a(a+1)}{3a+4} \in \mathbb N$, then $2 > \frac{5a}{3a+4} \in \mathbb N$
Then the only option for $\frac{5a(a+1)}{3a+4} \in \mathbb N$ is that $\frac{5a}{3a+4} = 1$, which is $a=2$