Given finitely generated (not necessarily abelian) group $G$ and normal subgroup $N\triangleleft G$, then $G/N\cong H\leq G$. Is this statement correct?
The reason why I am suspicious this to be true is because I know for cyclic groups, this is known to be true (edit: it is not). And as long as $N$ is cyclic, it's easy to see that so too can this result be extended to the finitely generated case (I'm very confident in this, at least). When considered the cases in which $N$ is not cyclic, however, it becomes a little bit less obvious.
My expectation is that this claim may not be true judging by the fact that I haven't been able to find any sources online confirming the statement. But nonetheless, I appreciate any and all help I can get. Thanks all!