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The motivation for this question comes from this post ("Where does the term "torsion" in algebra come from?").

To keep it brief: Given an element of finite order $\in H_n(X)$ (where $X$ denotes some arbitrary topological space), what does this tell us about the orientability of $X$? As far as my background in Algebraic Topology is concerned, I am very familiar through the first two chapters (chpt 0,1,2) of Hatcher's Algebraic Topology textbook.

Advice: The real projective space $\mathbb{R}\text{P}^2$ would be the most effective example to explain this concept with, for I am very familiar with this space. Though I'm sure other spaces would work just fine! Only suggest this space in case anybody wants me to provide a specific example to work with.

I appreciate any and all help I can get. Thank you!

J.G.131
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    You probably want to consider the case $X$ is a topological manifold, otherwise "orientability" doesn't really make sense. – Frank May 19 '24 at 00:34
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    In the case of $\mathbb{R}P^2$, you can think in terms of the fundamental group: there is a noncontractible loop which becomes contractible if you wind around twice. This loop represents the torsion element in $H_1(\mathbb{R}P^2, \mathbb{Z})$. The question is maybe more interesting though if you consider $\mathbb{Z}_2$ coefficients, in which case we have $H_2(\mathbb{R}P^2, \mathbb{Z}_2) = \mathbb{Z}_2$. – Frank May 19 '24 at 00:43
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    Unless $X$ is an $n$-dimensional compact topological manifold, it will tell you nothing. (Except for compact surfaces.) – Moishe Kohan May 19 '24 at 00:53
  • @Frank hmm...okay. That makes sense: Generalizing this idea, it's clear that whenever we have a non-trivial element (or rather, a non-contractible loop up to homotopy equivalence) of finite order, then you must be able to embed a Möbius band in the space via having one end on one path, and the other end on another path. So then I guess my next question is this: If a space is non-orientable, then must there exist a torsion element in a/the Homology Group/Groups? – J.G.131 May 19 '24 at 00:54
  • It is worthwhile to consider $\mathbb{R}P^3$ and $\mathbb{R}P^2$: the first is orientable, the second not, but both have torsion in $H_1$. As already noted, orientability only makes sense for manifolds, and then you have to pay attention to the top-dimensional homology. The post https://math.stackexchange.com/q/372504/42781 is related. – John Palmieri May 19 '24 at 18:15

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I'll try and put together an answer to adress the points mentioned.

First of all, orientability is a property of manifolds, not of general spaces. Given a manifold $M$ of dimension $n$, one can ask whether it is possible to coherently give local orientations around each point, which from the viewpoint of homology means a choice of generator $\mu_x \in H_n(M, M \setminus \{x\})$ such that for any open coordinate ball $U \subseteq M$ there is a class $\mu_U \in H_n(M, M \setminus U)$ mapping to $\mu_x$ for all $x \in U$ under the restriction. If it is, then we call $M$ orientable and the $\mu_x$ an orientation of/for $M$.

If $M$ is smooth, then one can alternatively define an orientation of $M$ as an orientation of its tangent bundle (i.e. a vector-space orientation of each fibre in a coherent way), to give a definition that's perhaps a little more intuitive.

An orientation on a manifold imposes very strong conditions on its co/homology. Assuming that $M$ is closed, for simplicity, it satisfies Poincaré Duality: There is an isomorphism $H_k(M) \overset{\cong}{\to} H^{n - k}(M)$ for all $k$ (and moreover this isomorphism is of a particularly useful nature that I won't go into here).

To see just how strong this is, it immediately drops out of the statement that $\mathbb{R}\mathrm{P}^2$ is not orientable: If it were, we would have $0 = H_2(\mathbb{R}\mathrm{P}^2) \cong H^0(\mathbb{R}\mathrm{P}^2) \cong \mathbb{Z}$ from duality, which is absurd. Invoking the stronger statement that $H_n(M) \cong \mathbb{Z}$ iff $M$ is orientable and 0 else, usually proved en route to the duality theorem, we see that $\mathbb{R}\mathrm{P}^3$, however, is orientable, since it has $H_3(\mathbb{R}\mathrm{P}^3) \cong \mathbb{Z}$.

This should be enough to show that existence of a torsion element in $H_*(M)$, in particular in $H_1(M)$ is not enough to say anything about orientability (and in this case we even have that $\mathbb{R}\mathrm{P}^2$ embeds into $\mathbb{R}\mathrm{P}^3$ in a way that induces an isomorphism on fundamental groups).

Rather, orientability is related to the fundamental group in a certain way: if $\pi_1(M)$ does not have an index 2 subgroup, then it is orientable (this relates to a 2-sheeted covering of $M$ one can construct from its local orientations, called the orientation cover, that's trivial iff $M$ is orientable). This for instance applies to show that manifolds with fundamental groups like $\mathbb{Z} / p$ for $p > 2$ prime are automatically orientable.

Finally, let me address the question of whether a non-orientable manifold always has non-trivial torsion in homology. I will again assume for simplicity's sake that $M$ is closed. To tackle this question, I will need to make an observation: All the discussion of orientations and duality above implicitly used $\mathbb{Z}$-coefficients, but there's really nothing stopping me from switching that out for any other nice ring; in particular for a field. Looking at the definition of orientation, if I take $\mathbb{F}_2$-coefficients then all the local groups $H_n(M, M \setminus \{x\}; \mathbb{F}_2)$ will be 1-dimensional $\mathbb{F}_2$-vector spaces and therefore contain a unique non-trivial element, so I have to define the $\mu_x$ to be that very element and get a unique orientation for free.

In other words, every manifold is $\mathbb{F}_2$-orientable, and thus has $\mathbb{F}_2$-Poincaré duality. I thus conclude that $H_n(M; \mathbb{F}_2) \cong H^0(M; \mathbb{F}_2) \cong \mathbb{F}_2$, but now I can apply the universal coefficient theorem to get $$ \mathbb{F}_2 \cong H_n(M; \mathbb{F}_2) \cong H_n(M; \mathbb{Z}) \oplus \operatorname{Tor}(H_{n - 1}(M; \mathbb{Z}), \mathbb{F}_2) \cong \operatorname{Tor}(H_{n - 1}(M; \mathbb{Z}), \mathbb{F}_2) $$ which implies that $H_{n - 1}(M; \mathbb{Z})$ has 2-torsion, so the answer to the question is "yes."

Ben Steffan
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