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I got that the following diagram \begin{equation*} \require{AMScd} \begin{CD} X_1\times_Y X_2 @>>> X_1\times_Z X_2\\ @V V V @VV V\\ Y @>>> Y \times_Z Y \end{CD} \end{equation*} being pullback can be checked in the category of sets from The "magic diagram" is cartesian and it also holds for the following diagrams (Quoted from Görtz&Wedhorn’s algebraic geometry):

Definition 9.1 Let $\mathscr{C}$ be a category and $X, Y, S$ be objects in $\mathscr{C}$, and $u: X \rightarrow S$, $v : Y \rightarrow S$, $f: X \rightarrow Y$ be three morphisms that commute, (i.e., $f : X \rightarrow Y$ is a morphism of $S$-objects). The morphism $$ \Gamma_f := (\operatorname{id}_X, f)_S : X \rightarrow X \times_S Y $$ i.e, induced by the following diagram

enter image description here

is called the diagram (morphism) of $f$.

Proposition 9.3 Let $u: X \rightarrow S, v :Y \rightarrow S$ be $S$-objects, let $p: X \times_S Y \rightarrow X$ and $q : X \times_S Y \rightarrow Y$ be the projections, and $f, g: X \rightarrow Y$ two $S$-morphisms. Then

(2) All rectangles of the the following diagram are cartesian. enter image description here

(3) Let $s: S \rightarrow X$ be a section of $u$ (i.e., $u \circ s = \operatorname{id}_S$). The following diagram is cartesian. enter image description here

But the following diagram is also cartesian from a Lean’s definition:

Given $f : X \rightarrow Y, i: U \rightarrow Y$ and $i_1: V_1 \rightarrow X \times_Y U, i_2: V_2 \rightarrow X \times_Y U$, the following diagram is cartesian:

enter image description here

an auxiliary diagram for this is: enter image description here

I am wondering how general is result like this hold, like the Freyd-Mitchell embedding theorem for abelian category. At first I am thinking it should be diagram about limits of the same shape. But some of them seems not following this pattern.

onRiv
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    If they are all limits, hit them with $\hom(X, -)$ and they will just all turn into limits in Set. No other requirements whatsoever. – Trebor May 13 '24 at 06:19
  • @Trebor Thanks for the comment. Yeah its seems working in this way. Just kind of fuzzy to state. – onRiv May 13 '24 at 14:13

2 Answers2

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$\require{AMScd}$As commented, all functors of type $\hom(X,-)$ preserve limits (corepresentable functors are continuous). But we need more than that! We need its partial converse. Fix a locally small category $\mathscr{C}$ - then:

If $\mathfrak{D}:\mathscr{J}\to\mathscr{C}$ any small diagram, then a cone in $\mathscr{C}$ over $\mathfrak{D}$, $(\ell,\tau:\Delta\ell\implies\mathfrak{D})$, is a limit of $\mathfrak{D}$ if and only if for all objects $\varsigma\in\mathscr{C}$, the cone obtained by applying $\mathscr{C}(\varsigma,-)$ to everything, $(\mathscr{C}(\varsigma,\ell),\tau_\ast)$, is a limit for the diagram $\mathscr{C}(\varsigma,\mathfrak{D}(-)):\mathscr{J}\to\mathsf{Set}$.

If you know about the pointwise evaluation theorem, this can be rephrased as follows:

The Yoneda embedding $y:\mathscr{C}\hookrightarrow[\mathscr{C}^{\mathsf{op}},\mathsf{Set}]$ preserves and reflects (but does not necessarily create, I don't think) limits of small diagrams.

This is a useful very general theorem. The idea is that, morally, the Yoneda embedding is, well, an embedding; you can really view $\mathscr{C}$ as inside the presheaf category and somehow properties you care about translate into properties within the presheaf category.

To prove the fact; assuming $(\ell,\tau)$ is a limit, the explicit construction of limits in the category of sets makes the proposition clear. Arrows $\varsigma\to\ell$ really are the same thing as cones over $\mathfrak{D}$ which really are the same thing as families of compatible elements of $\mathscr{C}(\varsigma,\mathfrak{D}(-))$. In the converse - which is what you need now, with Gortz-Wedhorn - you must check $(\ell,\tau)$ has the intended universal property... and what does that really mean? Well, you have to take any arbitrary $X$ and then say something about cones with apex $X$ versus arrows $X\to\ell$ and everything you need would follow from the assertion that $(\mathscr{C}(X,\ell),\tau_\ast)$ is a limit for $\mathscr{C}(X,\mathfrak{D}(-))$. The universal property quantifies $\forall X$ so to check it you can just instantiate at any particular $X$ and use the pointwise hypothesis.

Explicitly, say you have a square in the category: $$\begin{CD}A@>f>>B\\@VgVV@VVhV\\C@>>e>D\end{CD}$$And you want to check it is Cartesian. You don't a priori even need to assume it commutes. Gortz-Wedhorn are saying it suffices to check this square is Cartesian once an arbitrary $\hom(X,-)$ is applied. By applying $\hom(A,-)$ and testing on $1_A$ in the top left corner, you immediately realise the original square commutes since the square of hom-sets is supposed to commute. Ok - now we must check the universality. That means, if $X$ is any object, we need to check that arrows $c:X\to C,b:X\to B$ such that $ec=hb$ factor as $c=ga,b=fa$ for a unique $a:X\to A$.

Well, sure - let $X$,$c$,$b$ be an example of the above situation. We know that: $$\begin{CD}\hom(X,A)@>f_\ast>>\hom(X,B)\\@Vg_\ast VV@VVh_\ast V\\\hom(X,C)@>>e_\ast>\hom(X,D)\end{CD}$$Is Cartesian. There is a set $S:=\hom(X,X)$ and functions $b_\ast:S\to\hom(X,B),c_\ast:S\to\hom(X,C)$ with $e_\ast c_\ast=h_\ast b_\ast$ so there is a unique function $\alpha:S\to\hom(X,A)$ with $f_\ast\circ\alpha=b_\ast,g_\ast\circ\alpha=c_\ast$ by the Cartesian property. If $a:=\alpha(1_X)$ then we know $b=fa,c=ga$ immediately. It remains to check $a$ is unique with this property; but any solution $a$ to those equations would make a function $\alpha:=a_\ast$ which satisfies the equations given above and as this is unique - since we assume the square of hom-sets is Cartesian - the uniqueness of $a$ is immediate, $a_\ast=a'_\ast$ implying $a=a'$ since you can just plug in the identity.

FShrike
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  • Thanks the detailed and comprehensive answer! With this I am mainly concerning that tha diagrams "commute with limits" after applying the (co)yoneda functor, and satisfied by handling it case per case since there seems no general concrete statement. – onRiv May 18 '24 at 17:40
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    No but there is the general statement, see the top of the answer again. Yoneda preserves and reflects all small limits! My worked example at the bottom was just to give you a concrete thing to build intuition with, to see why this result should be true – FShrike May 18 '24 at 17:41
  • Yeah I seems getting the general statement at the top. But after applying $\mathscr{C}(\varsigma,-)$, the "pattern" of the diagram seems changed. Like $\Gamma_{f}$ mapped to $\mathscr{C}(\varsigma,\Gamma_{f})$ but not $\Gamma_{\mathscr{C}(\varsigma,f)}$. And it seems a new diagram in the category of sets but not a diagram that treating all objects and morphisms in the original diagram as sets and maps between them. For "recovering the pattern" some manipulation about commuteness seems required. – onRiv May 18 '24 at 17:54
  • @onRiv I’m not sure what you mean. In my concrete example all I did was use $\mathscr{C}(X,A)$ etc. i didn’t change the diagram beyond just applying the hom functors – FShrike May 18 '24 at 18:14
  • Is it because we are thinking different question? I am kind of asking a fuzzy question indeed. I am thinking that, like Görtz&wedhorn’s example, is he means treating $A$ and so on as sets rather than just using $\mathscr{C}(X, A)$ etc? – onRiv May 18 '24 at 18:28
  • The diagram in the concrete example is taken specifically in the category $\mathscr{C}$. But the diagrams in the question seem to be a "diagram pattern of some limit" that applied to any categories, like taking them as input? And I am thinking that is it any general result for if these "diagram pattern " holds for the category of sets, then it holds for all categories. – onRiv May 18 '24 at 18:36
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    @onRiv By “it is true for the category of sets” they mean two things: firstly, it would be true if all these objects are sets; secondly, I know by the fact Yoneda preserves and reflects limits that I can apply Yoneda, get an analogous situation with sets (because Yoneda would preserve all the limits), conclude [the square is a pullback or whatever] and then backtrack to a result in my category of schemes (or whatever) using now the fact that Yoneda reflects the limits. So they’re not pretending $X$ etc. are sets but they’re saying the statement for sets is true, so then our statement is true – FShrike May 19 '24 at 18:46
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    Yeah indeed I get it now! Indeed it is very general from the result about the (coyoneda) functor. Today I got it that $Hom(A,-)$ preserves limit and it results in the analogous situation in the category of sets (I am not sure the (co)yoneda functor means $Hom(A,-)$ or the functor $A \mapsto Hom(A,-)$, it should be the later?) I also got that why Görtz&wedhorn’s (3) works too: sections are preserved by any functor hence it can be treated analogously! Thank you very much for your detailed and kindly help! – onRiv May 20 '24 at 11:55
  • @onRiv You're very welcome. So about the terminology, Yoneda should be $A\mapsto\hom(-,A)$, coYoneda should be $A\mapsto\hom(A,-)$, and we should be a bit careful: it is true that $\hom(A,-)$ preserves limits but it is not true that it reflects them. However... if applying $\hom(A,-)$ gives you a limit for all $A$ then you know the original thing was a limit. Given $X$, what does applying $\hom(A,-)$ to $X$, for all $A$, really mean? It means looking at the Yoneda of $X$ i.e. the functor $\hom(-,X)$; if this is a limit of $(\hom(-,B_i))_{i\in I}$ then $X$ is a limit of the $B_i$. – FShrike May 20 '24 at 19:04
  • So again: $\hom(A,-)$ does not reflect limits. However, $X\mapsto\hom(-,X)$ does reflect limits, where this is the Yoneda embedding and the right hand side is a presheaf. But using the pointwise limits theorem, it is equivalent to say that if $\hom(A,X)$ is a limit of the diagram $\hom(A,D(-))$ of sets for all $A$ at once then the $X$ must be limit of the original diagram $D(-)$. This is the same thing as saying $\hom(-,X)$ is the limit (in presheaves) of the $\hom(-,D())$ which is maybe a bit confusing since the position of the hom has changed – FShrike May 20 '24 at 19:06
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Suppose we already have the following result:

Given any sets $X, Y, S$ and maps $u : X \rightarrow S, v: Y \rightarrow S$ between them, and $S$-maps $f, g: X \rightarrow Y$, i.e., $u = v \circ f = v \circ g$. Then the following diagram is cartesian (i.e., pullback diagram): \begin{equation*} \begin{CD} \operatorname{Eq}(f, g) @>{\operatorname{can}}>> X\\ @V\operatorname{can} V V @VV\Gamma_f V\\ X @>>\Gamma_g> X \times_S Y \end{CD} \end{equation*}

We want to show that (just replace the words sets/maps to objects/morphisms):

Given any objects $X, Y, S$ in a category $\mathscr{C}$ and morphisms $u : X \rightarrow S, v: Y \rightarrow S$ between them, and $S$-morphisms $f, g: X \rightarrow Y$, i.e., $u = v \circ f = v \circ g$. Then the aobve diagram is also cartesian (i.e., pullback diagram).

Given any $A \in \operatorname{Obj}\mathscr{C}$, applying the coyoneda functor $h_A$ (Here we reuse the variable names $f,g$): \begin{equation*} \begin{cases} X \mapsto \operatorname{Hom}(A, X) \\ X \xrightarrow[]{f} Y \mapsto (A \xrightarrow[]{g} X \mapsto f \circ g) \end{cases} \end{equation*} on all the above data, we have sets $h(X), h(Y), h(S)$ and maps $h(u): h(X) \rightarrow h(S), h(v): h(Y) \rightarrow h(S)$, and $h(S)$-maps $h(f), h(g): h(X) \rightarrow h(Y)$ (Here we omit the subscript letter $A$ when there is no confusion). Hence applying the assumption, the following diagram is cartesian: \begin{equation*} \begin{CD} \operatorname{Eq}(h(f), h(g)) @>{\operatorname{can}}>> h(X)\\ @V\operatorname{can} V V @VV\Gamma_{h(f)} V\\ h(X) @>>\Gamma_{h(g)}> h(X) \times_{h(S)} h(Y) \end{CD} \end{equation*} Now we should manuplate the above diagram "to commute the limit operations and (co)yoneda applications" (That's why I think it's kind of fuzzy for the general result and it must be handled case by case. Although generally it's from the fact that the yoneda functor preserves limit, but different diagrams seem given different proof here. And it seems hard to make a general statement.) Namely, we want the following diagram that can conclude the statement we want (from the fact that the yoneda functor reflects limit): \begin{equation*} \begin{CD} h(\operatorname{Eq}(f, g)) @>{h(\operatorname{can})}>> h(X)\\ @Vh(\operatorname{can}) V V @VV h(\Gamma_f) V\\ h(X) @>>h(\Gamma_g)> h(X \times_S Y) \end{CD} \end{equation*} From the construction of limits in the category of sets, $\operatorname{Eq}(h(f), h(g))$ is isomorphic to $$ \left\{x \in h(X) : f \circ x = g \circ x \right\} $$ But it's isomorphic to the set $h(\operatorname{Eq}(f, g))$. Similarlly we have $h(X) \times_{h(S)} h(Y)$ is isomorphic to the set $h(X \times_S Y)$. (Here we use the word "isomorphic" but not "equal" for respecting the fact that limits are only determined up to unique isomorphism and being very detailed.)

Now we have the following diagram (all askew maps are isomorphisms). We a priori still don't know that the four trapezoidal diagrams are commute. Next we prove this, from which the outer square does be commute and cartesian.

enter image description here

But from the definition for the isomorphism $\operatorname{Eq}(h(f), h(g)) \cong h(\operatorname{Eq}(f, g))$, it's deriven from the following diagram:

enter image description here

The isomorphism factored from the top triangle diagram is from the fact that limits are unique up to unique isomorphism, and the bottom triangle diagram is commute for its explicit construction: any element (i.e. cone, here just some morphism $x : A \rightarrow X$) is taken to $x$ itself via the morphism $\operatorname{Cone}(A) \rightarrow h(X)$ (the projection), and $\operatorname{Cone}(A) \xrightarrow[]{\cong} h(\operatorname{Eq}(f, g))$ takes $x$ to some $y: A \rightarrow \operatorname{Eq}(f, g)$ in $h(\operatorname{Eq}(f, g))$, and then $h(\operatorname{can}): h(\operatorname{Eq}(f, g)) \rightarrow h(X)$ takes it to $h(\operatorname{can})\circ y$, which is same as $x$. (Here there is some mess up with the notation $\operatorname{can}$: it used for both the canonical morphism for the equalizer $f, g: X \rightarrow Y$ and $h(f), h(g): h(X) \rightarrow h(Y)$). Hence the top trapezoidal does be commute. Similar argument can be applied for others, say the right trapezoidal diagram:

enter image description here

Here $\operatorname{Cone}(A)$ is used for denoting the set of all cones with vertex $A$: \begin{equation*} \begin{CD} A @>>> Y\\ @V V V @VV V\\ X @>>> S \end{CD} \end{equation*} And similarly the top triangle diagram commutes for the uniqueness of limits. And bottom triangle diagram commutes for its explicit construction: any element $x: A \rightarrow X$ in $h(X)$ is taken to the cone $\{x: A \rightarrow X, f \circ x: A \rightarrow Y\}$ by the map $h(X) \rightarrow \operatorname{Cone}(A)$ (recall that $v \circ f = u$):

enter image description here

and then the isomorphism $\operatorname{Cone}(A) \xrightarrow[]{\cong} h(X \times_S Y)$ takes the cone here to some factored morphism $y: A \rightarrow X \times_S Y$. But this is same as $\Gamma_f \circ x$ for the uniqueness of the factored morphism, which is the image of $x$ under $h(\Gamma_f)$.

From the above argument we do have all trapezoidal diagrams commute. And hence the outer square commute. And hence the original diagram in the category $\mathscr{C}$ is commute, for taking $A = \operatorname{Eq}(f, g)$ and checking the identical morphism as FShrike said. And the original diagram is cartesian also following FShrike's answer.

Despite checking the "to commute the limit operations and (co)yoneda applications" for the above specific case, it seems hard to make a general statement about it for the morphisms induced seems different from case to case, say $\operatorname{Eq}(f, g) \xrightarrow[]{\operatorname{can}} X$, or $\Gamma, \Delta$. For example for the third case in the question, it seems quite tedious to check $h(V_1 \times_{X \times_Y U} V_2) \cong h(V_1) \times_{h(X) \times_{h(Y)} h(U)} h(V_2)$ and the related diagrams are commute. Or for example the case shown up in Görtz&Wedhorn that involes a section is hard to include in some general concrete statement but requires specific handles.

Hence the idea here using the yoneda functor maybe treated as some guide line for some concrete proof after some conrete diagram shown up would be better.

onRiv
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  • Well done for thinking through everything carefully. +1, it's good to check the rigour. However I should say; there is a precise statement in general we can make, the one at the beginning of my answer. You just need to make sure it applies in whatever situation you have – FShrike May 18 '24 at 17:39