I know that if $(X_n)$ and $(Y_n)$ are martingales with respect to their natural filtration then $(X_n +Y_n)$ does not have to be a martingale with respect to its natural filtration. However, I did not manage to come up with an example. I would really appreciate if one could point out an example to me.
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Well, we have $|X_n+Y_n|{L^{1}}\leq |X_n|{L^{1}}+|Y_n|_{L^{1}}<+\infty$ and $X_n, Y_n\sim \mathcal{F}_n$. Also $E(X_n+Y_n|\mathcal{F}_n)=X_n+Y_n$. Then the sum of two martingales is martingale. – A. P. May 09 '24 at 05:22
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It is meant like here in the last part of the sentence of the second to last paragraph https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/22367/sum-and-product-of-martingale-processes – user007 May 09 '24 at 05:23
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Ok, I misinterpreted the usual question. Yes, a priori, when we consider a martingale $X_p$ with its filtration $F_{p}^{X}$ and $Y_q$ with its own filtration $F_{q}^{Y}$, the sum $X_p+Y_p$ with respect to the common filtration $F_{r}^{X+Y}$ may not be a martingale. The way I would construct an example is by adding some noise to one of the martingales, something like $X_n = X_{n-1} + Z_n$ and $Y_n = Y_{n-1} + Z_n + W_n$, with the initialization of the iteration at $0$ and suitable choices of the increments. – A. P. May 09 '24 at 06:00
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Let $(X_n)$ and $(Y_n)$ be two simple random walks defined on the same probability space, generated by a sequence of i.i.d. fair coin tosses $\omega_1,\omega_2,\dots $ with $\omega_i\sim U\{-1,1\}$ such that $$\begin{align*} X_n &= \omega_1 +\omega_2 +\dots + \omega_n \\ Y_n &= \omega_2 + \omega_1 + \dots +\omega_n \end{align*}$$
Then $(X_n)$ and $(Y_n)$ are martingales with respect to their natural filtrations, but $$\mathbb{E}[X_2+Y_2|X_1+Y_1]=\mathbb{E}[2(\omega_1+\omega_2)|\omega_1+\omega_2]=X_1+Y_1+\omega_1+\omega_2\neq X_1+Y_1$$ so the sum is not a martingale with respect to its natural filtration.
Joseph Basford
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I do not get why $X_n$ is a martingale since $E[X_{n+1} \mid \mathcal{F}n] = E[X{n+1}] = 0$. Am I confusing something? – user007 May 09 '24 at 06:32
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@user007 You're right, I've edited my answer to correct the error – Joseph Basford May 09 '24 at 06:39
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As far as I know we have $X_2 + Y_2 = X_1 +Y_1$ implying that $E[X_2+Y_2 \mid X_1 +Y_1] = X_1+Y_1$. Or do you mean $Y_2 = \omega_2 + \omega_1 + \omega_2$ ? – user007 May 09 '24 at 06:49
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@user007 $X_2=Y_2=\omega_1+\omega_2$, but $X_1=\omega_1$ and $Y_1=\omega_2$. So $X_2+Y_2=2(\omega_1+\omega_2)\neq \omega_1+\omega_2=X_1+Y_1$ – Joseph Basford May 09 '24 at 06:55
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Another example: $Y_n = -X_{n-1}$, $n\ge 1$, and $X_n$ is nearly arbitrary martingale. – zhoraster May 09 '24 at 11:29