I am currently self-studying Sheldon Ross' Intro to Probability and I am stuck on this problem. I tried myself and got an answer. Check whether I'm right, if not then whats wrong with my approach.
Each of 52 people are given a deck of cards, which they are asked to shuffle independent of each other. What is the probability that (a) the order of the cards in each shuffled deck is unique? (b) there is exactly one card that occupies the same position in the shuffled decks received from all 52 persons? (c) all cards occupy the same position in all the shuffled decks?
My approach:
$$ \frac{52!*(52! - 1)*(52! - 2)*....*(52! - 51)}{(52!)^{52}} $$ Clearly, there are 52! ways to arrange these 52 cards of one person. And this is same for all the 52 persons. Hence the denominator. Now, in the numerator the first person can arrange his cards in 52! ways, and then the next person, inorder to have a unique order, can arrange his cards in 52! ways except for that one particular arrangement that the first person has used. So, the second person has 52!-1. Similarly, the 3rd person has 52!-2 and so on till the last(52nd) person has 52!-51.
$$ \frac{\binom{52}{1}*\binom{52}{1}*51!*(51!-1)*...*(51!-50)}{(52!)^{52}} $$
For exactly one card to occupies the same position, we first choose a position from the 52 positions. Then we choose a specific card from the possible 52 cards for that position. Then, we are left with 51 cards for each person. Rest can be done in a similar fashion as above.
- $$ \frac{52!*1*....*1}{(52!)^{52}} = \frac{1}{(52!)^{51}} $$
The first person can arrange his cards in 52! ways. And in order for all cards occupy the same position in all the shuffled decks. All other 51 people should have the exact same arrangement as that of the first person.