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I am currently self-studying Sheldon Ross' Intro to Probability and I am stuck on this problem. I tried myself and got an answer. Check whether I'm right, if not then whats wrong with my approach.

Each of 52 people are given a deck of cards, which they are asked to shuffle independent of each other. What is the probability that (a) the order of the cards in each shuffled deck is unique? (b) there is exactly one card that occupies the same position in the shuffled decks received from all 52 persons? (c) all cards occupy the same position in all the shuffled decks?

My approach:

  1. $$ \frac{52!*(52! - 1)*(52! - 2)*....*(52! - 51)}{(52!)^{52}} $$ Clearly, there are 52! ways to arrange these 52 cards of one person. And this is same for all the 52 persons. Hence the denominator. Now, in the numerator the first person can arrange his cards in 52! ways, and then the next person, inorder to have a unique order, can arrange his cards in 52! ways except for that one particular arrangement that the first person has used. So, the second person has 52!-1. Similarly, the 3rd person has 52!-2 and so on till the last(52nd) person has 52!-51.

  2. $$ \frac{\binom{52}{1}*\binom{52}{1}*51!*(51!-1)*...*(51!-50)}{(52!)^{52}} $$

For exactly one card to occupies the same position, we first choose a position from the 52 positions. Then we choose a specific card from the possible 52 cards for that position. Then, we are left with 51 cards for each person. Rest can be done in a similar fashion as above.

  1. $$ \frac{52!*1*....*1}{(52!)^{52}} = \frac{1}{(52!)^{51}} $$

The first person can arrange his cards in 52! ways. And in order for all cards occupy the same position in all the shuffled decks. All other 51 people should have the exact same arrangement as that of the first person.

v-unk
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  • Questions 1 and 3 are certainly easy and correct. Question 2 on the other hand... this seems like a horribly difficult question. It won't be as easy as your attempt would have you believe since you have done nothing to account for the "exactly one" aspect of the event and you may well have multiple slots being identical across all shuffles. You also are neglecting the possibility of, say, the first two persons' decks being identically shuffled... which is perfectly acceptable so long as each position has at least one person whose shuffle has a card not matching someone else's... – JMoravitz May 04 '24 at 00:42
  • The question being as difficult as it is makes me wonder if it was copied correctly. It seems nowhere near the difficulty level of the others, and frankly I have little to no idea how to approach for an exact answer and would likely resort to estimation. – JMoravitz May 04 '24 at 00:44
  • Thats true. I've double checked the question is rightly copied from the text, you may refer also. I hope someone will solve it. I've saturated. Can think of any other approach myself. – v-unk May 04 '24 at 00:55
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    I completely agree with the comments of @JMoravitz. For what it's worth, if I was forced to attack question 2, as is, the first thing that I would try to do would be to educate myself, as comprehensively as possible, in both derangements and Inclusion-Exclusion theory. See this article for an introduction to Inclusion-Exclusion. ...see my next comment. – user2661923 May 04 '24 at 00:56
  • Continuation of my previous comment: Then, see this answer for an explanation of and justification for the Inclusion-Exclusion formula. Having said that, I speculate that any way that you slice it, the problem is going to be a nightmare to analytically attack. – user2661923 May 04 '24 at 00:57
  • Consider a simplification of the problem... that there are just two people. We ask the question that exactly one card happens to occupy the same position in both decks. Here, we can choose the position of the card in question and what the card is in $52^2$ ways. Now, we choose the arrangement of the remaining $51$ cards for the first person in $51!$ ways. The remaining $51$ cards for the second person however need to completely miss coinciding with any of the first persons' cards and can be arranged in those positions in $!51$ ways, giving $\dfrac{52^2 51! \cdot !51}{(52!)^2}$ – JMoravitz May 04 '24 at 01:00
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    Now, for three people, it is not so simple as having every card miss coinciding... you could have some cards coincide for two people so long as it doesn't coincide also for the third. Already with this it has become incredibly difficult to manage... I've gone and found the passage in question and indeed it is written this way. I can't imagine it was intentional. My advice is to skip this problem and get on with your studies elsewhere. It has to have been a mistake on the author's part to write it this way. – JMoravitz May 04 '24 at 01:04
  • @user2661923 I posted an answer, I'd appreciate it if you'd check it for correctness :) –  May 04 '24 at 12:50

2 Answers2

3

Now that I'm sober (but hungover) I will give it another try :)

The answers to 1. and 3. are correct, 2. is incorrect. Let $f(c,p)$ be the number of ways to distribute the same deck of $c$ different cards to each of the $p$ players without any card occupying the same position for all players. We now have $$c!^p=\sum_{k=0}^ck!{c\choose k}^2f(c-k,p)$$ where $f(0,p)=1$. The formula comes from the partition of the $c!^p$ possible configurations without restriction into those where no card occupies the same position, those where exactly one card occupies the same position and so on.

The $k$-th term inside the sum is the number of configurations where exactly $k$ cards occupy the same position for all players, there are ${c\choose k}$ number of ways to choose those cards, ${c\choose k}$ to choose those positions and $k!$ ways to permute the let's say cards (permuting the cards or positions is equivalent). The rest of the $c-k$ cards have to be arranged such that non of those cards occupy the same position for all players and there are $f(c-k,p)$ such arrangements.

This formula leads to a recursion which with a modern laptop evaluates instantly for the numbers considered. The answer for 2. will then be $$\frac{1!{52\choose 1}^2f(52-1,52)}{52!^{52}}=\frac{52^2f(51,52)}{52!^{52}}.$$ In fact we have that $f(51,52)$ is equal to $$8194878626029100213158341829015278440600410342343524058985214361778896\ 1138920807102375825646393673626741006680903784355152047966280697649972\ 1023209464875728007862790607510001168826592553873527922707758072430954\ 1696699562802756695403432702679293904466008347931258410005602665917241\ 0003243589234395423435763314488593404794831861542206092386710078960491\ 8215650609351490697649308355734906917508353989018681605372404633549963\ 6529208502782598222644817536453556294970544304616427278324904069489516\ 6499612172944741768520833424192415139526102703939524391803888625375711\ 7596965144314495312795616956469847049689089190668641186786511460449422\ 8054652503232700030717904816845649618210588162716797596763249192873503\ 9766127767182984408361192038145333780222300168001028967557244212117461\ 6369125071857013055369877018210272887675484488104639144621556875261623\ 4684458246788657410861804826107270728012981849828582887674817275351499\ 4033176027734397267943466512618674418868833532261565350238605531131848\ 2006589787774091971697136315639454263299476413087387879594466255689409\ 8413797518711950948289804004376376900642813294429066471960616770310282\ 8318337939515404076394841213522450056990856679840686703047844215484236\ 1361450985127583734113869810504853919541728412506735658662968829818927\ 0013253907974420479325128668885723505800906221045138137039683699123788\ 1188692771558171615244961259257923888441516771093843247056748208462229\ 9896775497146356915426929947767162130444724218285644356759999349054696\ 5056625758184903892376584187076585042949805918852842722298883502845542\ 6795407399462241696700106522410255361618077536360175007723565457067552\ 3795896025552082305238876489431625058948310666940497973389275609221668\ 4719857889400305856996138361076471919151315467282368985698255620622291\ 1513867096582979740710305599548980113506895886786129535239493578089959\ 2458170312920131518793947714340413614968927983705322757004923505481094\ 9214687601013756435814849167651417850145770508266165937149555650999559\ 9983102097045662937406222327705793326109099027796347408796663478020833\ 4758048849315339055347192085791465265730473655979680606582962143517442\ 1575151273175679164536842330294738874406208574334949477309765874595608\ 9193549513895627964562731468453398361835722130651011673890552217373115\ 6811337587266395214594432901648522461485826941064460589257903717916012\ 1080123328019707650268106235771807735207981774487242638428328972172798\ 2276025085569079552734304752479255244271972829084520326583862405575581\ 0059200451239668912494447923187170342252595644440152476342160569390584\ 9789316809137856607443552590758770827619939451122178670521448566168852\ 0099454615898623146667715610248581063387199794986728656924719900683263\ 4800013734475136564825014540906925950289877229405461646644213518311646\ 8545166648618114914106177718558519856478561434502577075879425340157610\ 2954220496015196953114519114343858950715907356813618656529969145693261\ 0915940558468138137748931663383232689546089456987135451845347940886806\ 7325430837795459331759204745786262716133951576572656009578307105270752\ 1493336386278103099455302828575213288845827291998181522184608582756364\ 5224801768118331122633061645690002229240472908612820856287713659407850\ 8199981149588619637067023800484933584239655205280534609205184300785393\ 9151018248545177703554711692687464180807007246481453917362757285761888\ 8649094250973054979256029129478869675466532787720308885278984438584425\ 5604611626758559357261524753696433432050812002748924323869936215654400\ 000000000000$$ if I haven't done any off by one errors.

  • Thanks for the efforts! I guess someone will doublecheck this. On a lighter note, if this is the answer, I wonder why they made this up as an exercise for a book named 'A first course on Probability'. – v-unk May 04 '24 at 18:48
  • @VishnuUnnikrishnan Assuming the book is an introduction (I didn't check the book) I think either the author had a different question in mind or the author had a wrong simple solution in mind. There are errors in almost any math book or long enough articles (although they are mostly minor typos). There is a joke "a mathematician thinks one thing, says a different thing and then writes down again a different thing" :) –  May 04 '24 at 19:01
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Your answer for questions 1 and 3 are correct.

For question 2, underflow's answer makes it seems like you need to use methods which were not mentioned in the book to solve this book's problem. My answer shows the way that Ross likely intended to solve this problem; I will use the principle of inclusion-exclusion, which was an earlier topic in the chapter.

First, let us find the probability that the $\spadesuit A$ is in the first position in everyone's decks, but no other card is in the same position in everyone's decks. The actual answer will be $52^2$ times the answer to this simpler problem, since there are $52^2$ analogous cases ($52$ choices for the card, $52$ choices for the position).

The probability that the $\spadesuit A$ is first card of everyone's decks is $(1/52)^{52}$. Conditional on this occurring, each person has $51$ cards besides $\spadesuit A$ to shuffle, and we require none of these cards to be in the same position for everyone. To this end, define the event $E_i$, for each $i\in \{1,\dots,51\}$, by $$ E_i=\{\text{$i^\text{th}$ card is at the same position in everyone's decks}\} $$ We want to find the probability $\mathbb P(E_1^c\cap \dots \cap E_{51}^c)$. Inclusion-exclusion is perfectly suited for this. $$ \begin{align} \mathbb P(E_1^c\cap \dots \cap E_{51}^c) &= \sum_{k=0}^{51}(-1)^k\sum_{1\le i_1<\dots<i_k\le 51 }\mathbb P(E_{i_1}\cap \dots \cap E_{i_k}) \\&=\sum_{k=0}^{51}(-1)^k\binom{51}k \mathbb P(E_1\cap \dots \cap E_k) \end{align} $$ Now we just need to ask, when $52$ friends shuffle decks of $51$ cards, what is $\mathbb P(E_1\cap \dots \cap E_k)$, the probability that cards numbered $1$ to $k$ all end up in the same place in everyone's decks? I claim that $$ \mathbb P(E_1\cap \dots \cap E_k)=\left(\frac{(51-k)!}{51!}\right)^{51} $$ To see this, consider the first person's deck. Cards numbered $1$ to $k$ will end up at some positions $p_1,p_2,\dots,p_k$ in the first person's deck. Then, we only succeed if every person's deck has cards $1$ to $k$ at these positions. Since the probability that $k$ particular cards land at $k$ particular positions in a particular deck is $\frac{(51-k)!}{51!}$, and since the $51$ other decks are independent, the result follows.

Putting this altogether, the final answer is $$ \mathbb P(\text{exactly one card at same position})=\frac{1}{52^{50}}\sum_{k=0}^{51}(-1)^k\binom{51}k \left(\frac{(51-k)!}{51!}\right)^{51}. $$ My answer numerically agrees with underflow's answer exactly.

Mike Earnest
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  • Here is a Python program which shows that my answer agrees with underflow's answer: Try it online! – Mike Earnest May 04 '24 at 20:29
  • Nice :) I'd personally preferred if it would be written in "combinatorics" instead of "probabilities" since for people who are new to the subject using probabilities in combinatorial questions often raises suspicion, confusion and doubt. +1 though! –  May 04 '24 at 20:50
  • Also nice to see that I haven't done any off by one error (except if both made the same one :)). –  May 04 '24 at 21:00