0

In set theory, $A \cup B$ is logically defined as $\{x : x \in A \lor x \in B\}$. In set theory, the result of unionizing A with B is a bigger set, but in logic, "or" is a softening operation.

In set theory, $A \cap B$ is logically defined as $\{x : x \in A \land x \in B\}$. In set theory, the result of intersecting A with B is a smaller set, but in logic, "and" is a strengthening operation.

Why do the extensional results of union and intersection go in reverse from their logical definition?

Prem
  • 14,696
  • Possibly related: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3316802/how-does-one-visualize-propositional-logic/3316825#3316825 – Noah Schweber Apr 26 '24 at 06:42
  • 26
    What you describe as "softening" can be interpreted as "applying a weaker condition". If a condition is weaker then more sets will satisfy this condition. So "bigger" and "softening" go hand in hand (not reverse). – drhab Apr 26 '24 at 06:43
  • Weaker does not make things bigger. Weaker makes things smaller. – ArtIntoNihonjin. Apr 26 '24 at 06:50
  • 2
    If one insists on get philosophical, though, this question is exactly the same as asking why strengthening a concept’s intension will result in a smaller extension and vice versa. That really shouldn’t be confusing. Strengthening a definition (intension) certainly makes the collection of objects satisfying the definition (extension) smaller. – David Gao Apr 26 '24 at 06:54
  • What is intension and how does it differ from the similar sounding word intention? – ArtIntoNihonjin. Apr 26 '24 at 06:55
  • @Fomalhaut See meaning 2 of https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/intension , see also https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Extensional_and_intensional_definitions#Intensional_definition , https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/74354/what-is-the-definition-of-intension, and https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Intension . – David Gao Apr 26 '24 at 06:59
  • In a mathematical context, this is just saying that a set can be either characterized by its elements (extension) or its defining property, that is, the $\varphi$ in the set builder notation ${x: \varphi(x)}$ (intension). – David Gao Apr 26 '24 at 07:02
  • @DavidGao Based on the required readings, it seems that intension is a borrowed concept from semiotics. What role should semiotics play in the foundation of mathematics? – ArtIntoNihonjin. Apr 26 '24 at 07:03
  • 1
    @Fomalhaut It’s a concept of logic. Its use in linguistics is a reflection of the fact that logic is present in how human languages are structured. And foundation of mathematics is certainly deeply connected with logic. (Some may even argue it is a part of logic.) The foundation of set theory, in particular, has always been reflective of how propositional logic works. – David Gao Apr 26 '24 at 07:08
  • 10
    @Fomalhaut The set of human beings is bigger than the set of women. This because the condition of being a human being (man or woman) is weaker than the condition of being a woman. So again: weaker makes bigger. – drhab Apr 26 '24 at 07:54
  • 3
    @Fomalhaut : Weaker = fewer restrictions = more qualifying elements = bigger set, while stronger = more restrictions = fewer qualifying elements = smaller set. – MPW Apr 26 '24 at 16:00
  • I made a rollback because the "new" title was not what OP was asking. – Prem Apr 26 '24 at 19:57
  • It's not clear what kind of explanation you're looking for. Do you think union and intersection should be defined the other way around? Do you understand why the definitions work the way they do? – Karl Apr 26 '24 at 20:10
  • @Karl Yes the definitions work but in a moral sense, they don't sit well. – ArtIntoNihonjin. Apr 26 '24 at 21:31
  • Yet another way to phrase it: the strength of a condition is in how much it excludes — stronger conditions exclude more elements (so giving a smaller result). – gidds Apr 26 '24 at 21:58

4 Answers4

14

Well, these terms can be often misleading if you strip off their original meaning. Note that they should rather give you an intuition on what happens there, in terms of a limited human language. So let's look how you should actually interpret these words:

"and" is a strengthening operation in a sense that the resulting sentence is stronger, meaning that it narrows down the possibilities how the things may go. Similarly, the set intersection narrows down the set of elements which belong to the resulting set.

"or" is a softening operation in a sense that the resulting sentence is softer, meaning that it extends the possibilities of how the things may go. Similarly, the set unification may extend the set.

Hume2
  • 2,759
  • 1
    "that you went too much philosophical" <- these are the nicest words anyone ever said to me on the Internet. Thank you. – ArtIntoNihonjin. Apr 26 '24 at 06:44
  • The "philosopher" would actually concur that there was a basic misunderstanding there. I am rather tempted to downvote this answer for the misleading and gratuitous remark. –  Apr 26 '24 at 06:48
  • I'm sorry that you found that remark as insulting, I didn't realise that. It should be fine now. – Hume2 Apr 26 '24 at 07:02
  • 1
    Misleading, not insulting: no worries. Indeed I was more cautioning the OP and the casual reader than anything else: beware of Hume... ;) –  Apr 26 '24 at 07:04
  • 1
    This answer got the green checkmark because by definition I can't downvote something from David Hume. – ArtIntoNihonjin. Apr 26 '24 at 07:12
8

Compare being able to lift a pencil versus being able to lift a refrigerator. Clearly, being able to lift a refrigerator is a stronger (yes, pun intended :P ) property. And , it being a stronger, fewer people will be able to do that.

In general, fewer things satisfy a stronger criterion.

Bram28
  • 103,721
2

In set theory, $A \cup B$ is logically defined as $\{ x : x \in A \lor x \in B \}$ : True
In set theory, the result of unionizing A with B is a bigger set : True
but in logic, "or" is a softening operation : What do you mean by that ?

In set theory, $A \cap B$ is logically defined as $\{ x : x \in A \land x \in B \}$ : True
In set theory, the result of intersecting A with B is a smaller set : True
but in logic, "and" is a strengthening operation : What do you mean by that ?

Why do the extensional results of union and intersection go in reverse from their logical definition? : Answer depends on what you mean.

In general , when we make the truth table , we can see these facts :
$A$ is true $50\%$ of the Cases , $B$ is true $50\%$ of the Cases.
$A \lor B$ is true $75\%$ of the Cases : the result of ORing has larger truth Case : Similar to $\cup$.
$A \land B$ is true $25\%$ of the Cases : the result of ANDing has smaller truth Case : Similar to $\cap$.

Conclusion : Nothing Weird or Strange or Paradoxical here !

PICTORIALLY :

We might superimpose Set Operators & Logic Operations in a Diagram , like this :

OR
We get larger result $50\%$ versus $75\%$ via Set Union & logical OR

AND
We get smaller result $50\%$ versus $25\%$ via Set Intersection & logical AND

Conclusion : Nothing Weird or Strange or Paradoxical here !

Prem
  • 14,696
1

There is some likeliness in the idea that being able to speak of large sets is cognitively desirable. Are not scientific statements supposed to be universal? This is, I think, the premiss on which rests your question , namely " large extension " $\iff$ " cognitive richness" $ \iff $ " logical strength".

But on the other side, statements involving large sets can be almost empty : consider Leibniz's statement " every being is one, every being is a unity". In French ( Leibniz used to write in this language) : " ce qui n'est pas un être n'est pas véritablement un être ".

So the question is : how to reconcile the desire of universality ( large extension) and the desire of cognitive richness .

As an hypothesis, I would say : a universal statement is cognitively rich if it expresses the inclusion of a large set in an ( apparently) small set ; or, put another way, the inclusion of an extensionnaly large set in an intensionnaly rich set.

Consider this example :

"Being a positive integer" is not a demanding condition, which makes the set it determines an extensionnaly large set.

"Being a number $n$ such that $n^3+3n -1$ is odd " is , to the opposite, a rather demanding condition. Because of the richness of the intension, one anticipates ( erroneously) a " small" set.

Hence , possibly, the cognitive interest attached to the sentence : " the set of positive integers is a subset of the set of integers such that $n^3+3n -1$ is odd".

Same observation for the statement : " the set of integers is a subset of the set of integers that can be written either as $3k+0$ or $3k+1$ or $3k+2$ ( with $k \in \mathbb Z$)".

As an aside, there is a concept that links the idea of strength of a statement to the idea of extension of an associated set, namely the concept of " truth set". For example the truth set of $A\rightarrow B$ is the set $\{ (T,T), (F,T) , (F,F)\}$. The larger the truth set, the weaker or the sentence ( following Carnap's Introduction to symbolic logic) . One can express logical implication in the follwing way : X logically implies Y iff the truth set of X is included in the truth set of Y.

  • 1
    Yes, you hit the nail on the head. Large extension, cognitive richness, and logical strength ought to be convertible with one another, like Truth, Beauty, and Goodness. Philosophically speaking. – ArtIntoNihonjin. May 08 '24 at 18:00
  • 1
    Also this is the logical answer so you now receive the green checkmark. David Hume was predestined not to receive the green checkmark from eternity past, after all. – ArtIntoNihonjin. May 08 '24 at 23:07