The Hopf bundle is defined as the quotient map of $S^3\subset \mathbb{C}^2$ by the action of $U(1)$ by multiplication $(z_1,z_2)\mapsto (e^{i\varphi}z_1,e^{i\varphi}z_2)$. It's known that it is the circle bundle of the complex line bundle $\mathcal{O}(-1)$ defined over $\mathbb{C}P^1$ by the transition function $g_{0\infty}(z)=z^{-1}$. In other words, it has Chern number $-1$.
On the other hand, the tangent bundle $TS^2\to S^2$ is known to be isomorphic to the Stiefel bundle $SO(3)\to S^2=SO(3)/SO(2)$. It is also known that this bundle has Chern number $2$ (since its transition function is $z^2$).
Thirdly, there is the homogeneous bundle $SU(2)\to S^2=SU(2)/U(1)$. It's not clear to me what its Chern number is, but it's definitely $\pm 1$ because those are the only circle bundles over $S^2$ whose total spaces are $S^3$ and not some lens spaces.
Question: if the Hopf bundle coincides with the third bundle, then it would seem that the second bundle should be nothing but the quotient of the first by the action of $\mathbb{Z}_2=\{\pm I\}$ on $SU(2)$, but clearly that would just square the value of the transition function, not invert it. Does this mean that the Hopf bundle is actually the dual of bundle 3? Where does the sign change come from?