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The following exercise is taken from lecture notes on Funtional Analysis by Prof. Mueger that I'm reading. For the sake of completion, I have added at the end the relevant definitions.

Exercise: If $V$ is Banach and $Z \subset V^*$ a closed subspace, construct an isometric isomorphism $$V^*/Z \cong (Z^{\top})^*$$

where $Z^{\top}$ is the (pre-)annhilator of $Z$ (see below). The symbol $\cong$ is used to mean that the two spaces are isometrically isomorphic.

And here is my question: Given $\varphi, \varphi' \in V^*$, $\varphi \sim \varphi'$ (mod $Z$) $\Leftrightarrow \varphi-\varphi' \in Z$ and thus $ \varphi_{|_{Z^{\top}}} = \varphi'_{|_{Z^{\top}}}.$

Hence, the map
\begin{align*} \beta \colon V^*/Z &\to (Z^{\top})^* \\ q \in V^*/Z &\mapsto \varphi_{|_{Z^{\top}}} \in (Z^{\top})^* \end{align*} (where $\varphi \in V^*$ is an arbitrary representative of $q$, $q = [\varphi]$) is well-defined.

$\beta$ is linear, and Hahn-Banach guarantees that $\beta$ is surjective. But I cannot prove that such map is injective. To do so would require proving that $(Z^{\top})^{\perp} = Z$, and such a claim is unwarranted. (Obviously, $Z \subseteq (Z^{\top})^{\perp}$, but not necessarily the other way around)


Definition of annihilators: Let $V$ be a normed space.

• For any $W \subset V$ , the annihilator of $W$ is $$W^\bot = \{φ \in V^* \mid φ(x) = 0, \forall x \in W\} \subset V^*.$$

• For any $\Phi \subset V^*$, the (pre-)annihilator of $\Phi$ is $$\Phi^{\top} = \{x \in V \mid φ(x) = 0, \forall φ \in \Phi \} \subset V.$$

  • The notation in the thread you point out is confusing, because it doesn't differentiate between annihilators of a subspace $W \subseteq V$, and the annihilator of a subspace $\Phi \subseteq V^$ of its dual. To the best of my knowledge, your claim $\bar{W} = (W^{\perp})^{\top}$ is correct for $W \subset V$, but what I'm asking is whether $\bar{Z} = (Z^{\top})^{\perp}$ for $Z \subseteq V^$ – prgnts123 Apr 22 '24 at 14:08
  • This is true provided that $\bar Z$ means the weak-star closure of $Z \subset V^*$. To prove this, one needs Hahn-Banach for locally convex spaces. – daw Apr 22 '24 at 14:32
  • Thanks for the lead... – prgnts123 Apr 22 '24 at 14:40

1 Answers1

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The result is true iff $Z\subset V^*$ is weak-star closed. The map $β$ is indeed injective if and only if $Z=(Z^\top)^\bot$. Since $(Z^\top)^\bot = \overline{Z}^{w^*}$ you see that $β$ is injective iff $Z$ is weak-star closed. Notice that this result is usually applied to $Z= W^\bot$ for some $W \subset V$, which is weak-star closed.

Here is a counter example: Consider $X$ a non-reflexive Banach space, $V=X^*$ and $Z= j(X) \subset V^*=X^{**}$ where $j \colon X \to X^{**}$ is the canonical embedding. Then $Z$ is weak-star dense in $V^*$ and since $X$ is not reflexive, $Z \neq V^*$ and thus $Z$ is not weak-star closed. Now, $$Z^\top = \{x^* \in X^* \colon \langle x^*,x \rangle =0 , \quad \forall x \in X \}= \{0\} $$ so that $$(Z^\top)^* = \{0\}$$ can not be isomorphic to $V^*/Z = X^{**}/j(X)$ since the latter quotient space contains atleast one non zero element i.e. there exists $x^{**} \in X^{**}$ such that $x^{**} \notin j(X)$ (since $X$ is not reflexive).

In fact, one can create many counter-examples by taking $Z \subset V^*$ to be any weak-star dense proper subspace, then $Z^\top =\{0\}$ so that $(Z^\top)^* = \{0\}$.


Here is a proof of $\overline{Z}^{w^*} = (Z^\top)^\bot$. Evidently, $Z \subset (Z^\top)^\bot$ and since the latter is weak-star closed, $\overline{Z}^{w^*} \subset (Z ^\top)^\bot$. Arguing by contradiction suppose that there exists $ x^*_0 \in X^* $ such that $ x^*_0 \in ( Z ^\top )^\bot \setminus \overline{Z}^{w^*} $. By the strong separation theorem for $(X^*,w^*)$ there exists (a weak-star continuous functional) $x\in X$ such that
$$ \sup_{x^* \in \overline{Z }^{w^*} } \langle x^*,x\rangle < \langle x_0^*, x \rangle . $$

Now consider the two cases: If $ x\in Z^\top $ then since $\overline{Z}^{w^*} \subset ( Z^\top )^\bot $, you get that $0<0$ which is absurd. On the other hand, if $ x \notin Z^\top $ then there exists $x^* \in Z$ with $ \langle x^*,x \rangle \neq0$. Hence, $$ \frac{ \langle x^*_0,x \rangle } { \langle x^*,x \rangle } \langle x^*,x \rangle = \Big \langle \frac{ \langle x^*_0,x \rangle } { \langle x^*,x \rangle } x^*,x \Big \rangle < \langle x_0^*,x \rangle $$ which is, again, impossible. This leads to a contradiction.

  • I'm still working on your answer, but, as an aside, once we are forced to make additional assumptions, another simple scenario in which the claim holds is to assume that $V$ is itself reflective. This is a stronger assumption than yours (so it might not be necessary), but it is sufficient (and simpler). What do you think? – prgnts123 Apr 23 '24 at 18:00
  • Of course reflexivity is sufficient: If $V$ is reflexive then the weak and weak star topologies coincide. Hence the weak star closure of $Z$ is the weak closure of $Z$ which is $Z$ by Mazurs theorem. Hence $Z$ is weak star dense. – Evangelopoulos Foivos Apr 23 '24 at 19:40
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    Your counter-example is a beautiful one. For completeness, I think you should add that $Z = j(X)$ is guaranteed to be closed (as required to be a counter-example) because $X$ is complete (Banach) – prgnts123 Apr 25 '24 at 10:28
  • There are interesting things in your answer, but overall I think you have messed it up. I also need to say that this opinion of mine needs to be taken with caution, because I was not familiar at all with the idea of weak topology. So, I'll try to summarize what I've got from this discussion: coming in, we knew that $V^/Z \cong (Z^{\top})^ \Leftrightarrow Z = (Z^{\top})^{\perp}$. My question was: is the right-hand side always true? Your counterexample shows the answer is negative. In your example $Z = j(X) \subset V^$ is closed, proper while $(Z^{\top})^{\perp} = ({0})^{\perp} = V^$ – prgnts123 Apr 26 '24 at 15:36
  • (continuation)Beyond that your answer purports to show that $\bar{Z}^{\omega} = (Z^{\top})^{\perp}$. If that were the case, $Z = \bar{Z}^{\omega}$ would be the necessary and sufficient condition for the claim $V^/Z \cong (Z^{\top})^$ to hold. The problem is: I cannot understand your "proof", and, from what I have lately read: "if C is a convex subset of a normed space, then its weak and normed closure are equal". A subspace is certainly convex, and hence the whole issue of weak closure, as opposed to norm closure, should be irrelevant. Shouldn't it? – prgnts123 Apr 26 '24 at 15:39
  • Yes the isomorphism result holds iff $Z=(Z^\top)^\bot$ as this is both necessary and sufficient for your map $β$ to be injective. 2) The relation $Z=(Z^\top)^\bot$ holds iff $Z$ is weak-star closed as $(Z^\top)^\bot= \overline{Z}^{w^}$ (weak-star closure) by H-B. 3) I think you got confused with weak and weak-star topologies. It is true that the weak-star closure $\overline{Z}^{w^}=(Z^\top)^\bot$, not the weak closure $\overline{Z}^w$. Yes, Mazur's theorem states that the weak-closure of convex sets coincides with the norm closure, but this fails for the weak-star topology $w^*$.
  • – Evangelopoulos Foivos Apr 26 '24 at 16:03
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    Ok, in order to make sure I understand, I tried to identify what in your proof of $\bar{Z}^{\omega^} = (Z^{\top})^{\perp}$ wouldn't work if I tried to repeat it to prove the (false) claim: $\bar{Z} = (Z^{\top})^{\perp}$. If I understand correctly the key point is that $(X^,\omega^)^ = j(X)$, so the separation guaranteed by H-B is realized by a functional that can be identified with a point in X. Obviously, this is false for the normal topology if $X$ is not reflective. Have I understood you correctly? – prgnts123 Apr 26 '24 at 21:20
  • The last issue that I needed to understand, whether $(X^,\omega^)^* = j(X)$, has been answered in this thread https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/296531/what-is-the-topological-dual-of-a-dual-space-with-the-weak-topology – prgnts123 Apr 30 '24 at 12:10
  • Yes, the answer therein proves that any weak-star continuous functional $φ \colon X^* \to \mathbb K$ is of the form $φ=j(x)$ with $x \in X$. This shows that the dual of the tvs $(X^,w^)$ is $j(X)$. – Evangelopoulos Foivos Apr 30 '24 at 12:48