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For context this questions is "caused" by the proof by Thomason of the Gillet-Waldhausen theorem (which is proposition 1.11.7 in this paper).

Let $\mathcal{C}$ be an exact category, we have a map $\alpha: \prod_{a+1}^b K(\mathcal{C})\to\prod_a^b K(\mathcal{C})$ induced by the functor sending $(C_{a+1}, ..., C_b)$ to $(C_{a+1}, C_{a+1}\oplus C_{a+2}, C_{a+2}\oplus C_{a+3}, ..., C_{b-1}\oplus C_b, C_b)$. Our goal is to understand its cofiber. It is claimed that the cofiber is given by the euler characteristic map $\chi: \prod_a^b K(\mathcal{C})\to K(\mathcal{C})$.

My main idea is to use the property of the cofiber to construct a map $\beta: cof(\alpha)\to K(\mathcal{C})$ and then use some trickery to show each $\pi_i(\beta)$ is an isomorphism, which would allow us to conclude by Whitehead's theorem. But I do not know whether this is the right idea (I don't really have an alternative idea) and assuming that my idea is correct, I don't actually know what trickery would allow me to show the desired claim.

Thanks a lot for any help you are willing to give.

DevVorb
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1 Answers1

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There should be a way to do this purely with playing around with pullback squares in the $\infty$-category of spectra (alternatively, with homotopy pullbacks in a model category presenting it), but I got a bit lost doing that, so I will give an alternative solution, which does require a bit more prior knowledge but is much shorter. I will work in the $\infty$-category $\mathsf{Sp}$ of spectra. You can perform this solution also in the stable homotopy category with its triangulated structure, except for the reduction step from $K$ to $\mathbb{S}$ below, which at the very least requires a not too naive model category for spectra (i.e. one that is a monoidal model category under the tensor product of spectra).

First, note that it does not matter for this question whether $K(\mathcal{C})$ is a spectrum or an $\mathbb{E}_\infty$-group, because the inclusion of $\mathbb{E}_\infty$-groups into spectra preserves homotopy cofibers. We will compute the cofiber in $\mathsf{Sp}$ because it is a stable $\infty$-category, so that you can compute the cofiber by computing the fiber.

I will prove the following:

Claim 1. If $K\in\mathsf{Sp}$ and $\nabla\colon K\oplus K\to K$ is the fold map, then the map $$K\oplus K\oplus K\to\mathrm{cofib}\left((\nabla,\mathrm{id})\colon K\oplus K\to K\oplus K\oplus K\right)$$ is equivalent to the composite $$ K\oplus K\oplus K\xrightarrow{-1\oplus 1\oplus 1} K\oplus K\oplus K\xrightarrow{\nabla} K.$$ Here, $-1$ is the ''multiplication by $-1$'' map that any spectrum admits (more on that below). Since $\nabla\colon K^{\oplus n}\to K$ serves as an addition map (for instance in the sense that it induces addition on homotopy groups), this statement implies the statement from your question in case $b=a+2$. The general case is proven entirely analogously, but I want to keep notation simple.

We will first assume a weaker claim.

Claim 2. We have $\mathrm{cofib}(\nabla,\mathrm{id})\simeq K$.

The proof will be given at the end. Assuming Claim $2$, we will now reduce Claim $1$ to the case $K\simeq\mathbb{S}$, the sphere spectrum. Indeed, the map $-1\colon K\to K$ and the map $\nabla\colon K\oplus K\to K$ are both induced by $-1\colon\mathbb{S}\to\mathbb{S}$ and $\nabla\colon\mathbb{S}\oplus\mathbb{S}\to\mathbb{S}$ after applying the tensor product $-\otimes K$ of spectra. For the first, this holds by definition, and for the second, this follows from the fact that $-\otimes K$ preserves colimits in $\mathsf{Sp}$. Moreover, the conclusion of Claim $1$ is a statement about cofibers, and since $-\otimes K$ preserves cofibers, it therefore suffices to prove the claim for $K\simeq\mathbb{S}$.

Now, how is $-1\colon\mathbb{S}\to\mathbb{S}$ defined? Well, we know that $-1\colon\mathbb{Z}\to\mathbb{Z}$ exists, and $$\mathsf{Ab}(\mathbb{Z},\mathbb{Z})\cong\mathbb{Z}\cong\pi_0(\mathbb{S})\simeq[\mathbb{S},\mathbb{S}],$$ so we obtain a map $-1\colon\mathbb{S}\to\mathbb{S}$ unique up to homotopy, that induces multiplication by $-1$ on $\pi_0(\mathbb{S})$. As said earlier, $\nabla\colon\mathbb{S}\oplus\mathbb{S}\to\mathbb{S}$ induces $$ \pi_0(\mathbb{S})\oplus\pi_0(\mathbb{S})\to\pi_0(\mathbb{S}), (a,b)\mapsto a+b $$ on homotopy groups. Write $f$ for the map $(\nabla,\mathrm{id})\colon\mathbb{S}\oplus\mathbb{S}\to\mathbb{S}\oplus\mathbb{S}\oplus\mathbb{S})$. We have a long exact sequence $$ \ldots\to\pi_0(\mathbb{S}\oplus\mathbb{S})\xrightarrow{f_*}\pi_0(\mathbb{S}\oplus\mathbb{S}\oplus\mathbb{S})\to\pi_{0}(\mathrm{cofib}(f))\to\pi_{-1}(\mathbb{S}\oplus\mathbb{S})\to\ldots, $$ and by Claim 2 and the above facts about homotopy groups we already know that it takes the form $$ \ldots\to\mathbb{Z}\oplus\mathbb{Z}\xrightarrow{(a,b)\mapsto(a+b,a,b)}\mathbb{Z}\oplus\mathbb{Z}\oplus\mathbb{Z}\xrightarrow{\psi}\mathbb{Z}\to 0,$$ where $\psi$ is yet to be determined. (We used here that $\pi_{-1}(\mathbb{S})=0$, by the way.) But we can now conclude that $\psi$ is the map $\mathbb{Z}\oplus\mathbb{Z}\oplus\mathbb{Z}\to\mathbb{Z}, (a,b,c)\mapsto -a+b+c$. Since $$[\mathbb{S}\oplus\mathbb{S}\oplus\mathbb{S},\mathbb{S}]\cong[\mathbb{S},\mathbb{S}]\oplus[\mathbb{S},\mathbb{S}]\oplus[\mathbb{S},\mathbb{S}]\cong\mathbb{Z}\oplus\mathbb{Z}\oplus\mathbb{Z}\cong\mathsf{Ab}(\mathbb{Z}\oplus\mathbb{Z}\oplus\mathbb{Z},\mathbb{Z}),$$ each map $\mathbb{S}\oplus\mathbb{S}\oplus\mathbb{S}\to\mathbb{S}$ is determined up to homotopy by how it acts on $\pi_0$, and the map from Claim $1$ induces exactly this map. This proves Claim $1$ for $K\simeq\mathbb{S}$, and as said, this proves all of Claim $1$.

Now let us prove Claim $2$. This is formal nonsense about pullbacks (hence why we do it for general $K$). Since $\mathsf{Sp}$ is a stable $\infty$-category, it suffices to show that $\mathrm{fib}(\nabla,\mathrm{id})\simeq\Omega K$. The first ingredient is that the following is a pullback square in $\mathsf{Sp}$: $$ \require{AMScd} \begin{CD} K @>{(1,-1)}>> K\oplus K\\ @VVV @VV{\nabla}V\\ 0 @>>> K \end{CD} $$ That we need to put $K$ in the top left corner follows via the same reasoning as in my answer here (I just noticed that this was also a question of yours, what a nice continuity), where we moreover use that $\Sigma\Omega K\simeq K$ because $\mathsf{Sp}$ is stable. That the map $K\to K\oplus K$ appearing above is $(1,-1)\colon K\to K\oplus K$ follows from the long exact sequence on homotopy groups, because we know that $\nabla\colon K\to K$ induces addition on homotopy groups.

Now, formal nonsense about limits commuting with limits gives you for any $f\colon A\to C$ and $g\colon B\to D$ a pullback diagram $$ \require{AMScd} \begin{CD} \mathrm{fib}(f)\oplus\mathrm{fib}(g) @>>> 0\\ @V{i_A\oplus i_B}VV @VVV\\ A\oplus B @>{f\oplus g}>> C\oplus D \end{CD} $$ where the maps $i_A\colon\mathrm{fib}(f)\to A$ and $i_B\colon\mathrm{fib}(g)\to B$ are the canonical maps from the fiber. Similar formal nonsense gives for any $(h,j)\colon E\to F\oplus F$ a pullback square $$ \require{AMScd} \begin{CD} E\times_{h,F,j}E @>>> F\\ @VVV @VV{\Delta}V\\ E\oplus E @>{h\oplus j}>> F\oplus F \end{CD} $$ where $\Delta\colon F\to F\oplus F$ is the diagonal morphism.

Combining these facts, we can write the pullback square $$ \require{AMScd} \begin{CD} \bullet @>>> 0\\ @VVV @VVV\\ K\oplus K @>{(\nabla,\mathrm{id})}>> K\oplus K\oplus K \end{CD} $$ as a composite of pullback squares $$\require{AMScd}\begin{CD} \bullet @>>> \bullet @>>> 0\\ @VVV @VVV @VVV\\ K\oplus K @>{\Delta}>>(K\oplus K)\oplus(K\oplus K) @>{\nabla\oplus\mathrm{id}}>> K\oplus K\oplus K \end{CD}$$ and then conclude that the pullback square $$ \require{AMScd} \begin{CD} P @>>> 0\\ @VVV @VVV\\ K@>{(1,-1)}>> K\oplus K \end{CD} $$ satisfies that $P\simeq\mathrm{fib}(\nabla,\mathrm{id})$. Now, as a finishing touch, we compute $P$ by considering the following diagram $$ \require{AMScd} \begin{CD} P @>>> 0 @>>> 0\\ @VVV @VVV @VVV\\ K @>{\Delta}>> K\oplus K@>{1\oplus -1}>>K\oplus K \end{CD} $$ The right-hand square is a pullback square because $(1,-1)\colon K\oplus K\to K\oplus K$ is an equivalence, and the outer rectangle is also a pullback square by definition of $P$. Therefore the left-hand square is also a pullback square. We already said above how to compute pullbacks along a diagonal morphism: we conclude that $P$ fits into a pullback diagram $$ \require{AMScd} \begin{CD} P @>>> 0\\ @VVV @VVV\\ 0 @>>> K \end{CD} $$ This means that $\mathrm{fib}(\nabla,\mathrm{id})\simeq P\simeq\Omega K$, as required. This proves Claim $2$, which means we have won.

P.S. You might wonder why we cannot show using our prove of Claim $2$ that the map $K\oplus K\oplus K\to K$ given by the cofiber is the correct one. This would require finding the fiber of $P\to K\oplus K$, hitting that fiber with $\Sigma$, and multiplying the map by $-1$. However, in the proof that $\mathrm{fib}(\nabla,\mathrm{id})\simeq\Omega K$, we juggled a lot of pullback squares around and changed some signs, so it was too confusing for me to actually show we get the correct map $K\oplus K\oplus K\to K$ like this, hence why I reduced to $K\simeq\mathbb{S}$ and passed to homotopy groups. If someone finds a direct proof, we can remove all these homotopy group considerations, and moreover we would get a proof that for more general $\infty$-categories than just that of spectra.

Daniël Apol
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  • Thank you so much, this is a very detailed answer which makes it possible for me to understand even though I am not yet very comfortable with spectra. – DevVorb Apr 30 '24 at 09:53
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    Happy to help! Just in case my notation is unclear (and this is an important thing to know): the $\infty$-category $\mathsf{Sp}$ is additive (as any stable $\infty$-category is), so I write $K\oplus K$ for both the product and coproduct. This additivity is one way in which working in $\mathsf{Sp}$ formally feels a lot like working with something like abelian groups, but there are more concrete and less formal reasons why $\mathsf{Sp}$ is truly very closely related to $\mathsf{Ab}$. – Daniël Apol Apr 30 '24 at 19:59
  • Sorry to bother you again, I have been working through your answer in more detail, as to write it up I need to understand it more deeply. You claim that the general case is dealt with in perfect analogy to the case you treated where $b-a=2$. But I am struggling to see in the general case how to define $P$. My only natural candidate is not the homotopy fiber of some map, thus the end of the argument breaks down. Sorry for the bother, thank you so much in advance. – DevVorb May 03 '24 at 15:51
  • I will reply later to this (hopefully within a day or two), because I need to sit down for a proper check and subsequent write up. If I recall correctly, it is not a literal analogy but the the limit defining $P$ will be replaced by a more complicated diagram. – Daniël Apol May 04 '24 at 14:32
  • Thank you so much for your time and patience, this is immensely useful. – DevVorb May 06 '24 at 13:26