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M. Morigi in his paper "On the minimal number of generators of finite non-abelian p-groups having an abelian automorphism group" here: https://www.tandfonline.com/doi/pdf/10.1080/00927879508825327 in Lemma 0.4 states that if $G$ is a finite nilpotent group of class 2, then $\exp (G')=\exp (G/Z(G))$ in the decomposition of $G/Z(G)$ into direct product of cyclic groups at least two factors of maximal orders must accur.

I don't understand this statemtent. I would really appreciate if someone could explain it to me with an example. For example, if $|G|=p^5$ where $p$ is a prime, $G'=Z(G)$ and $|Z(G)|=p^3$ then $|G/Z(G)|=p^2$. Then $G/Z(G)\cong \mathbb{Z}_p\times \mathbb{Z}_p$? Does he mean this?

Mahtab
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  • Related. Groups that occur as central quotients are said to be "capable"; for $p$-groups of small class ($c\lt p$), the condition is necessary. For abelian groups it is also sufficient. – Arturo Magidin Apr 20 '24 at 19:45

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Let $G$ be a (non-abelian) $p$-group with $G/Z(G)$ abelian. Then $G' \subseteq Z(G)$, so certainly $G$ is nilpotent of class $2$. Put $p^a=$exp$(G/Z(G))$ (which equals the maximum order of the elements of $G/Z(G)$, since the latter is an abelian group).

We claim that $G/Z(G)$ must contain at least two direct factors $C_{p^a}$, that is $G/Z(G) \cong C_{p^a} \times C_{p^a} \times A$, with $A$ a (possible trivial) abelian $p$-group. Now $G/Z(G) \cong C_{p^a} \times C_{p^{a_1}} \times \cdots \times C_{p^{a_n}}$, for certain non-negative numbers $a_i$, with all $a_i \leq a$. We must show that there exists an $a_i$ with $a_i=a$, so assume for the moment that all $a_i \lt a$.

Let $x, x_1, x_2, \ldots, x_n$ be corresponding inverse images of the generators of the cyclic direct factors of $G/Z(G)$. Of course, $[x,x_i^{p^{a-1}}]=1$, since for each $a_i \lt a$, we have $x_i^{p^{a-1}} \in Z(G)$. The commutator map is a bilinear map, since $G$ is of nilpotent class $2$, yielding $[x^{p^{a-1}}, x_i]=[x,x_i^{p^{a-1}}]=1$. This means that $x^{p^{a-1}}$ centralizes the inverse images of the generators of $G/Z(G)$, so $x^{p^{a-1}} \in Z(G)$. But this implies that $xZ(G)$ has order smaller than $p^a$, which is a contradiction, proving the claim.

This shows that groups like $C_p \times C_{p^2}$ or $C_p \times C_{p^2} \times C_{p^{10}}$ and many other examples, cannot appear as the inner automorphism group of a finite $p$-group.

Nicky Hekster
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