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In a question which was recently asked, the goal was to (dis)prove that the set of functions which satisfy a certain equation is trivial. There is already a very neat solution there, but I came up with an alternative idea to solve it, purely based on functional analysis arguments, but there remains a gap I can't seem to fix.

Here is the setup : let $0<\gamma\le 1 $ and consider the sets of real-valued functions $$X_1:=\{f\in C^{0,\gamma}(\mathbb R),\text{ s.t. } f(x)=0\ \forall x\not\in[0,1]\},$$ where $C^{0,\gamma}(\mathbb R)$ denotes the space of $\gamma$-Hölder continuous on $\mathbb R$, and $$X_2:=\left\{g\in C(\mathbb R_{>0}),\text{ s.t. } \sup_{a>0}g(a)<\infty\right\}.$$ That is, $X_1$ is the space of $\gamma$-Hölder functions on $\mathbb R$ which vanish outside of $[0,1]$, and $X_2$ is the space of bounded continuous functions on $\mathbb R_{>0}$. We respectively equip $X_1$ and $X_2$ with the norms $\|\cdot\|_{X_1}$ and $\|\cdot\|_{X_2}$ defined for all $(f,g)\in X_1\times X_2 $ by $$\|f\|_{X_1}:= \sup_{x\in\mathbb R}|f(x)| + \sup_{x,y\in\mathbb R,x\ne y}\frac{|f(x)-f(y)|}{|x-y|^\gamma}, $$ $$\|g\|_{X_2}:= \sup_{x>0}|g(x)|. $$ Equipped with those norms, $X_1$ and $X_2$ are both Banach spaces, and we can define the linear operator $T:X_1\to X_2$ by $$Tf : a\mapsto \int_{\mathbb{R}}f(ax)\exp \left(-\frac{1}{2}(x-1)^2\right)dx. $$ It is is not hard to show that $T$ is a well-defined bounded linear operator from $X_1$ to $X_2$ (details below if interested), and my goal is to show that $\operatorname{ker}(T)\ne\{0\}$, which would give a negative answer to the original question I mentioned.

To show that $T$ has non-trivial spectrum, I proved that $T$ is compact (details below, again), and I thought that it followed from "standard theory" that the kernel of $T$ could not be trivial in that case. However I found out that this is wrong, as there are compact operators on infinite-dimensional spaces with trivial kernels (I could only find Hilbert space examples though...).
I know that $T$ being compact implies that its range is separable and thus has cardinality at most $2^{\aleph_0}$, but unfortunately $X_1$ also has cardinality at most $2^{\aleph_0}$ so I can't conclude anything...

Question : How to show that the kernel of $T$ is (not ?) trivial ? Ideally I would like to see solutions based on my approach so far, but alternative ideas are also welcome.

Many thanks for reading thus far !


Proof that $T$ is well-defined : $T$ is clearly linear, and for all $f\in X_1,$ we have that for any $a_1,a_2>0$ $$\begin{align} |Tf(a_1)-Tf(a_2)|&\le\int_{\mathbb{R}}|f(a_1x)-f(a_2x)|\exp \left(-\frac{1}{2}(x-1)^2\right)dx\\ &\le \int_{\mathbb{R}}\|f\|_{X_1}|x|^\gamma|a_1-a_2|^\gamma\exp \left(-\frac{1}{2}(x-1)^2\right)dx\\ &\le|a_1-a_2|^\gamma\|f\|_{X_1}\int_{\mathbb{R}}|x|^\gamma\exp \left(-\frac{1}{2}(x-1)^2\right)dx\\ &\le |a_1-a_2|^\gamma C(f),\tag1\end{align} $$ where $C(f)<\infty$ is a finite number which depends only on $f$, hence $Tf$ is (Hölder) continuous. Likewise, it's easy to see that for all $a>0$, $|Tf(a)|\le \|f\|_{X_1}\int_{\mathbb{R}}\exp \left(-\frac{1}{2}(x-1)^2\right)dx$, hence $T$ is indeed a well defined (and bounded) linear map from $X_1$ to $X_2$.

Proof that $T$ is compact : to see this let $M>0$ be a fixed constant and consider a family $\{f_n,n\in\mathbb N\}\subseteq X_1$ such that for all $n$, $\|f_n\|_{X_1}\le M $. We claim that the sequence $(Tf_n)_{n\ge 1}$ is Cauchy in $X_2$, which will immediately imply that $T$ is compact. First observe that for any $a>0$ and any $n\ge 1$,

$$|Tf_n(a)| \le \int_0^{1/a} |f_n(ax)|\exp \left(-\frac{1}{2}(x-1)^2\right)dx\le M/a. $$ Hence for any $\varepsilon>0$ and $a>4M/\varepsilon $, we have $|Tf_n(a)|\le \varepsilon/4 $ uniformly over $n\in\mathbb N$. But now note that for any $n,m\in\mathbb N$, triangle inequality yields \begin{align}\|Tf_n - Tf_m\|_{X_2}&\le \sup_{0<a\le 4M/\varepsilon}|Tf_n(a) - Tf_m(a)| + \sup_{a> 4M/\varepsilon}|Tf_n(a) - Tf_m(a)| \\ &\le \sup_{0<a\le 4M/\varepsilon}|Tf_n(a) - Tf_m(a)| + \varepsilon/2.\end{align} So denote $I_\varepsilon:=[0,4M/\varepsilon]$ : we need to find a $N(\varepsilon)$ such that $\sup_{a\in I_\varepsilon}|Tf_n(a) - Tf_m(a)| \le \varepsilon/2$ whenever $n,m\ge N(\varepsilon)$. But this follows directly from Arzelà-Ascoli theorem applied to the restriction of each $Tf_n$ to $I_\varepsilon$ : uniform boundedness is clear and uniform equicontinuity follows from the Hölder property (the same way we derived inequality $(1)$).

We conclude that for any $\varepsilon>0$, we can find $N(\varepsilon)$ such that $\|Tf_n-Tf_m\|_{X_2}\le \varepsilon $ whenever $n,m>N(\varepsilon)$, that is, $ (Tf_n)_{n\ge1}$ is Cauchy. Hence $T$ maps bounded sets in $X_1$ to relatively compact sets in $X_2$ and is therefore compact.

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    Plenty of Hilbert space examples of injective compact operators carried over to other Banach spaces (especially in sequence spaces), and some natural inclusions of Banach spaces (say, the inclusion of Hölder continuous functions into continuous functions) are compact operators, so the general theory of compact operators is not going to help you much. – David Gao Apr 19 '24 at 23:44
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    And I highly suspect the specific operator you wrote down is actually injective. Probably it can be proved by some kind of Stone-Weierstrass argument showing that the linear span of $\exp(-\frac{1}{2}(ax-1)^2), a \in \mathbb{R}_{>0}$ is dense in $C([0, 1])$ (or, at least, dense in $L^2([0, 1])$). – David Gao Apr 19 '24 at 23:49
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    I should also point out that your proof of compactness is wrong. Arzelà-Ascoli only tells you there is a subsequence that converges, not that the original sequence is Cauchy itself. (In fact, that can’t possibly be true - just let $f_n = (-1)^n f$ for some fixed $f$ with $Tf \neq 0$, say.) But that is, of course, enough to prove compactness of $T$. – David Gao Apr 19 '24 at 23:58
  • @DavidGao thanks for your comments, and thanks especially for your remark about my (mis-)application of the Arzelà-Ascoli theorem, you are right that the conclusion about $(Tf_n)$ only holds for a subsequence (but the conclusion that $T$ is compact is still valid). Regarding injectivity of $T$, the argument you suggest sounds interesting, but I don't think that (the span of) the family $\exp(-\frac{1}{2}(ax-1)^2), a \in \mathbb{R}_{>0}$ forms an algebra of functions, so Stone-Weierstrass can't be applied I'm afraid. I'll try to think about a way to get around it when I have time. – Stratos supports the strike Apr 22 '24 at 11:05
  • There’s also a lattice version of Stone-Weierstrass theorem, which may be helpful (the span is not exactly a lattice either, so this is just me throwing out some ideas rather than a concrete proof approach). Also, since proving $L^2$-density would be enough, you can also consider applying a Fourier transform and see if that helps. – David Gao Apr 22 '24 at 18:07

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