The author writes:
One conceivable and seemingly natural way of constructing $\sigma(\mathcal{A})$ from $\mathcal{A}$ is as follows. For a class $\mathcal{E}$ of subsets of $\Omega$, denote by $\hat{\mathcal{E}}$ the class of subsets of $\Omega$ consisting of the sets contained in $\mathcal{E}$, their complements, and finite or countable unions of the sets in $\mathcal{E}$. Define $\mathcal{A}_0 = \mathcal{A}, \mathcal{A}_1 = \hat{\mathcal{A}_0}, \mathcal{A}_2 = \hat{\mathcal{A}_1}, \text{etc.}$ Clearly, for each $n$ the system $\mathcal{A}_n$ is contained in $\sigma(\mathcal{A})$, and one might expect that $\mathcal{A}_n = \sigma(\mathcal{A})$ for some $n$ or, at least, $\bigcup_{n} \mathcal{A}_n = \sigma(\mathcal{A})$.
For context here $\mathcal{A}$ is an algebra. What I do not understand is: Shouldn't $\mathcal{A_2} = \hat{\mathcal{A_1}} = \mathcal{A_1}$ where the last equality holds because $\mathcal{A_1}$ is already a sigma-algebra? What am I missing?
Thank you a lot for your help