Given a vector space $V$, we consider the (trivial) associated even superspace $V\oplus 0$ and odd superspace $0\oplus V$. For any (super) vector space $W$ we define the $n$th symmetric power as $$ \operatorname{Sym}^n(W) = W^{\otimes n}/\langle v_1\otimes v_2\otimes\cdots\otimes v_n - \sigma(v_1\otimes v_2\otimes\cdots\otimes v_n),\ \sigma\in S_n\rangle $$ for $S_n$ the symmetric group of $n$ symbols. In already two sources I read it is mentioned without proof that for any usual vector space V we get $$ \begin{align} \operatorname{Sym}^n(V\oplus 0) &= \operatorname{Sym}^n(V)\tag{1}\\ \operatorname{Sym}^n(0\oplus V) &= \wedge^n(V).\tag{2} \end{align} $$ Nevertheless, I cannot see why this holds; in fact the result is counter-intuitive to me, given how tensor products of direct sums decompose. In the simplest case, where $n=2$, I believe that $$ (V\oplus 0)^{\otimes 2} \cong V_1\oplus 0 $$ for $V_1 = (V\otimes V)\oplus (V\otimes 0)\oplus (0\otimes V)$ while in the other case we have $$ (0\oplus V)^{\otimes 2} \cong 0 \oplus V_2 $$ for $V_2 = (0\otimes V)\oplus (V\otimes 0)\oplus (V\otimes V)$. Now how these quotient by the ideal of the symmetric elements to lead to $(1)$ and $(2)$ is something I cannot see at all, because $V_1\cong V_2$. I am probably wrong on something, but I ignore what.
Edit
I am aware of the fact that $(1)$ and $(2)$ follow from the following, more general result $$ \operatorname{Sym}^n(A\oplus B) = \bigoplus_{k=0}^n \left(\operatorname {Sym}^{k}(A)\otimes \bigwedge^{n-k}B \right) \tag{3} $$ but this is not something I am able to prove either.