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A first tentative guess would be "two categories $A$ and $B$ are equivalent iff each connected component of $A$ is equivalent to a (full) subcategory of $B$ and vice versa", but this fails, for example, in the case of $FiniteFields$ and $(\mathbb{N}, \leq)$ [wrong]

Trying to strengthen it to "[...] iff each connected component of $A$ is ('strictly') isomorphic to some subcategory of $B$, and vice versa" then fails (in the other direction) for 'smaller' skeletons

A somewhat compromising possibility, involving a 'global' condition, (which I'm not sure actually holds; please tell if it's false, or well-known) would be a Dedekind-Cantor-Schröder-Bernstein-type proposition: "two categories are equivalent iff for one of them, every connected component is equivalent to some subcategory of the other, and, on the opposite direction, there is a fully faithful (not necessarily essentially surjective) functor"

acb1516
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1 Answers1

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Let $A$ be the disjoint union of countably many copies of the category $\bullet\to\bullet$, and let $B$ be the disjoint union of $A$ with the category $\bullet$. Then $A$ and $B$ are not equivalent, but there are fully faithful functors in both directions, and each connected component of either is equivalent to a subcategory of the other.