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Can $\displaystyle \lim_{x\rightarrow 0} \left(\frac{1}{x^2}\right)^x$ be solved as $\displaystyle \lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\frac{1^x}{x^{2x}}$? It is in the indeterminate form of ${\infty}^0$ so I think I should transform it to the $\ln$ form and solve it. But I am not sure if I can solve it as given above.

sudeep5221
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2 Answers2

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Notice that

$$\left(\frac{1}{x^2}\right)^x=(x^{-2})^x=x^{-2x}=e^{-2x\ln x}$$

Now utilize that $\lim_{x \rightarrow 0^+} x \ln x = 0$ which results in the limit equaling $1$.

Tanamas
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In almost every standard textbook for 1st year calculus, there exists a technique for calculating a limit of function, that is, take the logarithm of that function, calculate the limit, then see what is the exponential of that limit.

So here, we take its logarithm, then we have

$$\ln (\frac{1}{x^2})^x$$

$$= x \ln\frac{1}{x^2}$$

$$= x \ln\frac{1}{x^2}$$

$$= x \ln x^{-2}$$

$$= -2x \ln x$$

And this means

$$\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \ln(f(x)) = \lim_{x \rightarrow 0}(-2x \ln x)$$

Since we know that

$$\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} x \ln x = 0$$

(It is easy to show this through L'Hôpital's rule)

we have

$$\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \ln(f(x)) = -2 \times 0 = 0$$

Therefore,

$$\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} f(x)$$

$$= \lim_{x \rightarrow 0} e^{\ln f(x)}$$

$$= e^{\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \ln f(x)}$$

$$= e^0$$

$$= 1$$

Hope this can help you.

ZYX
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