For instance, when differentiating four-vectors the result is straightforward: $$\frac{\partial x^\mu}{\partial x^\nu}=\delta_\nu^\mu$$ as the derivative is only non-zero when the Lorentz indices match. Here $\mu, \nu = 0,1,2,3$.
But when differentiating type $(0,2)$ tensors, for example, $$\frac{\partial\left(\partial_cA_d\right)}{\partial\left(\partial_\mu A_\nu\right)}=\delta_c^\mu\delta_d^\nu\tag{1}$$
I note that the order of the indices in $(1)$ (going from left to right) is preserved; $\mu$ is 'paired' with $\mathrm{c}$, and $\nu$ is paired with $\mathrm{d}$.
My question is very simple, am I allowed to commute the two contravariant or covariant derivatives in $(1)$?
Put simply, is it true that $$\frac{\partial\left(\partial_cA_d\right)}{\partial\left(\partial_\mu A_\nu\right)}=\delta_c^\mu\delta_d^\nu=\delta_c^\color{red}{\nu}\delta_d^\color{red}{\mu}=\delta_\color{blue}{d}^\mu\delta_\color{blue}{c}^\nu?$$
My reason for asking is that since the condition for $(1)$ to be non-zero is that all the Lorentz indices must be equal, then what is to stop me from interchanging two of the contravariant (or covariant) indices?
Update:
After writing this post another question came to mind, namely, why do we need a product of Kronecker deltas and why not write $$\frac{\partial\left(\partial_cA_d\right)}{\partial\left(\partial_\mu A_\nu\right)}=\delta_{cd}^{\mu\nu}$$ instead of eqn. $(1)$? I had this idea after looking at this Wikipedia page on the generalized Kronecker delta.