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Background

Hi. I am currently writing my undergraduate thesis which mainly revolves around the generalized log-Moyal distribution pioneered by Bhati and Ravi (see here). In the aforementioned article, Bhati and Ravi addressed a proposition regarding the generalized log-Moyal distribution, one of which is the following: $$E\left[\log\left(\frac{\mu}{Y}\right)\right] = -\sigma(\log 2+\gamma),$$ where $\gamma=-\int_{0}^{\infty}\log(t)\exp\{-t\}dt\approx 0.577216$ is Euler's gamma constant. The two authors did not provide the proof for this proposition. However, they mentioned that the proof is followed by straightforward computations. I have attempted to prove this proposition, but I have been stuck for quite some time trying to complete the third-to-last line of the following proof.

Attempted Proof

Notice that \begin{align*} E\left[\log\left(\frac{\mu}{Y}\right)\right] &= \int_{0}^{\infty} \log\left(\frac{\mu}{y}\right) f(y) d y\\ &= \int_{0}^{\infty} \log\left(\frac{\mu}{y}\right) \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi} \sigma y} \left(\frac{\mu}{y}\right)^{1/(2\sigma)} \exp\left\{-\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{\mu}{y}\right)^{1/\sigma}\right\} d y\\ &= \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi} \sigma} \int_{0}^{\infty} \log\left(\frac{\mu}{y}\right) y^{-1-\frac{1}{2\sigma}} \mu^{\frac{1}{2\sigma}} \exp\left\{-\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{\mu}{y}\right)^{1/\sigma}\right\} d y. \end{align*} Applying the substitution $t=\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{\mu}{y}\right)^{1/\sigma}$, we have $y=\frac{\mu}{(2t)^{\sigma}}$ such that $d y = \frac{\mu}{2^{\sigma}}(-\sigma)t^{-\sigma-1}d t$. Hence, $t\to \infty$ as $y\to 0$ and $t\to 0$ as $y\to \infty$, implying that \begin{align*} E\left[\log\left(\frac{\mu}{Y}\right)\right] &= \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi} \sigma} \int_{\infty}^{0} \log\left[\frac{\mu}{\mu/(2t)^{\sigma}}\right] \left[\frac{\mu}{(2t)^{\sigma}}\right]^{-1-\frac{1}{2\sigma}} \mu^{\frac{1}{2\sigma}} \exp\left\{-t\right\} \left[\frac{\mu}{2^{\sigma}} (-\sigma) t^{-\sigma-1}\right] d t\\ &= -\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi} \sigma} \int_{0}^{\infty} \log\left[(2t)^{\sigma}\right] \left[\frac{(2t)^{\sigma}}{\mu}\right]^{1+\frac{1}{2\sigma}} \mu^{\frac{1}{2\sigma}} \exp\left\{-t\right\} \left[\frac{\mu}{2^{\sigma}} (-\sigma) t^{-\sigma-1}\right] d t\\ &= -\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi} \sigma} \int_{0}^{\infty} \log\left[(2t)^{\sigma}\right] \frac{(2t)^{\sigma\left(1+\frac{1}{2\sigma}\right)}}{\mu^{1+\frac{1}{2\sigma}}} \mu^{\frac{1}{2\sigma}} \exp\left\{-t\right\} \left[\frac{\mu}{2^{\sigma}} (-\sigma) t^{-\sigma-1}\right] d t\\ &= -\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi} \sigma} \int_{0}^{\infty} \log\left[(2t)^{\sigma}\right] \frac{2^{\sigma+\frac{1}{2}} \cdot t^{\sigma+\frac{1}{2}}}{\mu^{1+\frac{1}{2\sigma}}} \mu^{\frac{1}{2\sigma}} \exp\left\{-t\right\} \left[\frac{\mu}{2^{\sigma}} (-\sigma) t^{-\sigma-1}\right] d t\\ &= \frac{-(-\sigma)2^{\sigma+\frac{1}{2}}\cdot\mu^{\frac{1}{2\sigma}}\cdot\mu}{\sqrt{2\pi}\sigma \cdot 2^{\sigma} \cdot \mu^{1+\frac{1}{2\sigma}}} \int_{0}^{\infty} \log\left[(2t)^{\sigma}\right] t^{\sigma+\frac{1}{2}} \cdot t^{-\sigma-1} \exp\{-t\} d t\\ &= \frac{1}{\sqrt{\pi}} \int_{0}^{\infty} \log\left[(2t)^{\sigma}\right] t^{\frac{1}{2}-1} \exp\{-t\} d t\\ &= \frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{\pi}} \int_{0}^{\infty} \left[\log(2)+\log(t)\right] t^{\frac{1}{2}-1} \exp\{-t\} d t\\ &= \frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{\pi}} \left[\log(2) \int_{0}^{\infty} t^{\frac{1}{2}-1} \exp\{-t\} d t + \int_{0}^{\infty} \log(t) t^{\frac{1}{2}-1} \exp\{-t\} d t\right]\\ &= \frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{\pi}} \left[\log(2) \Gamma\left(\frac{1}{2}\right) + \int_{0}^{\infty} \log(t) t^{\frac{1}{2}-1} \exp\{-t\} d t\right]\\ &= \frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{\pi}} \left[\log(2) \sqrt{\pi} + \int_{0}^{\infty} \log(t) t^{\frac{1}{2}-1} \exp\{-t\} d t\right]\\ &= \cdots\\ &= -\sigma\left[\log 2-\int_{0}^{\infty} \log(t) \exp\{-t\} d t\right]\\ &= -\sigma(\log 2+\gamma). \end{align*}

Question

So, my main question: how do you prove that
\begin{align*} \int_{0}^{\infty} \log(t) t^{\frac{1}{2}-1} \exp\{-t\} d t &= -\sqrt\pi\left[2\log(2)-\int_{0}^{\infty} \log(t) \exp\{-t\} d t\right]\\ &= -\sqrt\pi[2\log(2)+\gamma]. \end{align*} I have tried a handful of combinations for the substitution method, but I am starting to doubt that the process of achieving the second-to-last line of my proof is not as easy as I thought it was (or maybe it is, but I overlooked it?). I have also read the proofs to this question asked by the Peruvian mathematician Harald Andrés Helfgott over 7 years ago. I would say that robjohn's proof is rigid, but unfortunately, it is too complicated for my thesis and myself as I mainly focus on actuarial sciences, and my thesis in particular revolves around loss models and risk theory. Can anybody help me with this challenge I've come across? Any help is much appreciated. Thanks!

Karel
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    This is basically $\Gamma'(1/2)$, evaluated e.g. via $\psi(1/2)$. – metamorphy Feb 26 '24 at 07:45
  • Thank you for your response! Unfortunately, elaborating further in my thesis on the digamma function would be very lengthy for me. However, I appreciate your help and I think it is very interesting! I didn't know that the integral in question could be evaluated as $\Gamma'(1/2)$. Thank you once again! – Karel Mar 05 '24 at 09:36

1 Answers1

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Too long for a comment

Using the Frullani' integral $\,\,\displaystyle \ln (t)=-\int_0^\infty\frac{e^{-xt}-e^{-x}}xdx\,\,$ and changing the order of integration $$\int_0^\infty \ln (t) \,t^{-\frac12} e^{-t} dt=-\int_0^\infty\frac{dx}x\int_0^\infty\left(e^{-(x+1)t}-e^{-t}e^{-x}\right)t^{-\frac12}dt$$ $$=-\int_0^\infty\frac{dx}x\left(\frac1{\sqrt{1+x}}-e^{-x}\right)\int_0^\infty t^{-\frac12}e^{-t}dt=\sqrt\pi\int_0^\infty\left(e^{-x}-\frac1{\sqrt{1+x}}\right)\frac{dx}x$$ Integrating by parts, we have $$=\sqrt\pi\ln x\left(e^{-x}-\frac1{\sqrt{1+x}}\right)\,\bigg|_{x=0}^\infty-\sqrt\pi\int_0^\infty\left(\frac{\ln x}{2(1+x)^{\frac32}}-e^{-x}\ln x\right)dx$$ $$=-\sqrt\pi\,\gamma-\frac{\sqrt\pi}2\int_0^\infty\frac{\ln x}{(1+x)^{\frac32}}dx\overset{t=\frac1{\sqrt{1+x}}}{=}-\sqrt\pi\,\gamma-\sqrt\pi\int_0^1\ln \frac{1-t^2}{t^2}dt$$ $$=-\sqrt\pi\,\gamma+2\sqrt\pi\int_0^1\ln (t)\,dt-\sqrt\pi\int_0^1\ln(1-t)dt-\sqrt\pi\int_0^1\ln(1+t)dt$$ $$I=-\sqrt\pi\big(\gamma+2\ln2\big).$$

Karel
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Svyatoslav
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    Wow! Thank you very much for your answer, Svyatoslav! I have tried evaluating this integral using your idea; Frullani's integral. Although the proof is quite lengthy, I find it very clear and concise. Moreover, I could clearly understand this proof as an undergraduate mathematics student; not a proof that requires a vast amount of knowledge on various topics. Cheers! – Karel Mar 05 '24 at 09:41
  • I'm really glad that it helps! Good luck ) – Svyatoslav Mar 05 '24 at 11:20
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    Hi, Svyatoslav. Using Frullani's integral, I have also found the answer to $\int_{0}^{\infty} \log(t) t^{\frac{1}{2}} \exp{-t} d t$, which is $\frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2}\left[2-2\log(2)-\gamma\right]$. Now, I'd like to calculate $\int_{0}^{\infty} \log^2(t) t^{\frac{1}{2}} \exp{-t} d t$. I tried using Frullani's integral again, with $\log^2(t)=\left[\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{e^{-xt}-e^{-x}}{x} dx\right]\left[\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{e^{-yt}-e^{-y}}{y} dy\right].$ However, I find myself calculating some complex integrals. Should I not define $\log^2(t)$ like so? What would you recommend me to do? – Karel Mar 08 '24 at 09:58
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    I think your approach will lead to the answer, but I'm afraid this is not the most simple way. In this case the usage of the derivatives of digamma function seems to be the systematic approach, which provides the answer at any power of the logarithm of the integrand. – Svyatoslav Mar 13 '24 at 01:23
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    I see... I might have to try that soon, as I have not found the answer to my last question. However, I have posted my attempt to prove the said question, and you can find it here: https://math.stackexchange.com/q/4907119/1294932. If you have time and are willing to help me out, please feel free to drop a comment/suggestion! Thank you very much, Svyatoslav :) – Karel Apr 29 '24 at 04:36