Following this related Example of tensor (0,2) acting on two vectors (Nick's answer). I want to ask why in the definition we consider the map $(f\otimes g)\colon V\otimes W \to X\otimes Y$ and not $(f\otimes g)\colon V\times W \to X\otimes Y$ as $(f\otimes g)(a,b)=f(a)\otimes g(b)$ ?
Why we need $V\otimes W$ here ? A lot of times I see the notation $(f\otimes g)(a,b)$ as well. Is this some kind of convention we make if we work over fields just because we always have $F\otimes F\cong F$ ?
Maybe there is a lot to unpack here but a reference to how we define the tensor product action on vectors and covectors would also be nice.