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(1) The statement $\forall x(P(x) \rightarrow Q(x))$ reads "For all $x$, if $P(x)$, then $Q(x)$".

(2) The statement $\neg\exists x(P(x) \rightarrow \neg Q(x))$ reads "There does not exist an $x$ such that if $P(x)$, then not $Q(x)$".

(3) The statement $\neg\exists x(P(x) \wedge \neg Q(x))$ reads "There does not exist an $x$ such that $P(x)$ and not $Q(x)$".

I know from De Morgan's Law that statements $1$ and $3$ are logically equivalent, and know that statement $2$ is inequivalent. However, all three statements seem to me to be saying the saying thing!

Could someone explain the difference in meaning between statement $2$ and the other statements, perhaps with an example?

ryang
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    Because it is not... 2 is equiv to $\forall x ¬(P(x)→¬Q(x))$ i.e. to $\forall x (P(x) \land Q(x))$ while 3 is $\forall x¬(P(x)∧¬Q(x))$ i.e. $\forall x (¬P(x) \lor Q(x))$ – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Jan 24 '24 at 07:01
  • @MauroALLEGRANZA I understand that it is not equivalent, but I was wondering what is the difference in the meaning between statement 2 and the other statements. To me, the statements seem to be saying the saying thing. – beyondinfinity Jan 24 '24 at 07:03

2 Answers2

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We can work with the different equivalent transformations of the formulas.

We agree that 1 and 3 are equivalent and 3 says that "there is no object $a$ such that $P(a)$ and $\lnot Q(a)$".

But this is consistent with: "for some $b$, $\lnot P(b)$ and $Q(b)$".

Consider 2 now: it is equivalent to $¬∃x(¬P(x) \lor ¬Q(x))$ and to $∀x(P(x) ∧ Q(x))$

But this is not consistent with "for some $b$, $\lnot P(b)$ and $Q(b)$".


Example: 1 may be "for every x, if x is Male, than it is Human" that is the same as "there is no x that is Male and not Human", which is True.

Thus, 2 will be "there is no x such that if x is Male, than x is not Human", which is False because it amounts to "for every x, x is a Male and it is Human" (there are Women).

  • Although this technically answers my question, it doesn't illustrate the semantic difference between statement 2 and statement 3. However, the answer is helpful, so I have upvoted. – beyondinfinity Jan 24 '24 at 09:05
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$\forall x(P(x) \rightarrow Q(x))\tag1$

Every Penguin is Queer.

$\neg\exists x(P(x) \wedge \neg Q(x))\tag3$

No non-Queer Penguin exists.

$$\neg\exists x(P(x) \rightarrow \neg Q(x))\tag2$$ reads "There does not exist an $x$ such that if $P(x)$, then not $Q(x)$".

Since existentially quantified conditionals are easy to misread and confusing to accurately parse, we transform what you wrote to the following equivalent statements:

  • Such a thing doesn't exist: it is either not a Penguin or not Queer
  • This is false of everything: it is either not a Penguin or not Queer
  • Everything is a Queer Penguin.

This shows that sentence (2) is logically stronger than sentence (1), which is equivalent to sentence (3).

ryang
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