(1) The statement $\forall x(P(x) \rightarrow Q(x))$ reads "For all $x$, if $P(x)$, then $Q(x)$".
(2) The statement $\neg\exists x(P(x) \rightarrow \neg Q(x))$ reads "There does not exist an $x$ such that if $P(x)$, then not $Q(x)$".
(3) The statement $\neg\exists x(P(x) \wedge \neg Q(x))$ reads "There does not exist an $x$ such that $P(x)$ and not $Q(x)$".
I know from De Morgan's Law that statements $1$ and $3$ are logically equivalent, and know that statement $2$ is inequivalent. However, all three statements seem to me to be saying the saying thing!
Could someone explain the difference in meaning between statement $2$ and the other statements, perhaps with an example?